And that was how I used it, this being Great DEBATES.
Yeesh.
And that was how I used it, this being Great DEBATES.
Yeesh.
From John J. Reilly’s [ur=http://www.johnreilly.info/thre.htm]review of The Holy Roman Empire, by Friedrich Heer:
And that was how I used it, this being Great DEBATES.
Yeesh.
Um, yeah I know. His wording made it sound like he thought this was the standard definition as used by Americans. It’s not, so I posted that. Maybe he didn’t mean it that way, in which case, all I did was add some unneeded info. The funny part is that even if that was the case, my post still wasn’t as worthless as yours.
I would accept your argument if Germany was ever a part of the Roman Empire.
Greek land was assimilated by the Romans, just as in you analogy Seminole lands were taken over by the US, whereas there was a fine line between Roman lands and Germania.
The HRE, simply put, wanted to sponge off the glory that was Rome.
All of these arguments are semantic. The various Germanic peoples all provided taxes, soldiers, and material support to the empire. You cant say that people who go to war under the orders of the same leaders, and all pay taxes to the same authorities are not in fact part of the same country. The Germanic people were as much a part of the Western Roman empire as Spain and North Africa were.
All of these arguments are semantic. The various Germanic peoples all provided taxes, soldiers, and material support to the empire. You cant say that people who go to war under the orders of the same leaders, and all pay taxes to the same authorities are not in fact part of the same country. The Germanic people were as much a part of the Western Roman empire as Spain and North Africa were.
Surely the whole argument is semantic - the right of the HRE to call itself Roman?
Granted, the composition of the legions toward the end was comprised of a great many Germanic peoples. But that invites the question - did they see themselves as Germans or Romans?
There’s also another point - are the Germans in service to Rome, i.e. Germans within Rome’s own borders granted foederati status or through force (Franks, Goths, Vandals) the same Germans that made up the HRE? I would say no for the fact that they had been assimilated into Rome’s borders and not merely stayed in Germany. The Franks taking over Gaul, Goths moving into Noricum, Vandals settling into North Africa, etc. You could say that Germans ‘Germanified’ the Roman Empire to such an extent that it was no longer the Roman Empire; which by the end it wasn’t. So you have the situation that rather than Germans becoming Romans, you have Romans becoming German. Again, that may sound like a merely semantic argument, but that’s the point.
Everything you say is true, and I’m not disputing that. But the argument isn’t about whether Germanic peoples up to the 4th-5th centuries were Roman, but whether the Holy Roman Empire was.
Even if Germans in the 10th century did identify with their wayward brethren, did this mean they were Roman? I would argue no; since the WRE had been defunct for nigh-on 6 centuries, they left it a little late to say the least - the Germans who could call legitimately themselves Roman had long since moved on.
All of these arguments are semantic. The various Germanic peoples all provided taxes, soldiers, and material support to the empire. You cant say that people who go to war under the orders of the same leaders, and all pay taxes to the same authorities are not in fact part of the same country. The Germanic people were as much a part of the Western Roman empire as Spain and North Africa were.
Well, some were, some weren’t. Many Germans migrated south of the Rhine, accepted Roman rule, paid taxes, served in the legions, absorbed Roman culture to some extent, converted to Christianity, etc. But other Germans remained north of the Rhine, outside the Empire, and hostile to Rome – which they intended to reach as conquerors, not immigrants. Wars in that period often involved pitting “our” Germans against the others.
Well, some were, some weren’t. Many Germans migrated south of the Rhine, accepted Roman rule, paid taxes, served in the legions, absorbed Roman culture to some extent, converted to Christianity, etc. But other Germans remained north of the Rhine, outside the Empire, and hostile to Rome – which they intended to reach as conquerors, not immigrants. Wars in that period often involved pitting “our” Germans against the others.
Which is irrelevant to whether or not the Holy Roman Empire should have called themselves that. The way I sees it, they saw themselves as inheritors of the traditions of Rome, they thought of the Empire as Holy, and it was definitely an Empire.
In fact, the ironic thing is that the Western Empire might not have fallen at all save for a twist of fate. “Emperor” Magnus tried a coup with his northern legions and tripped the border garrisons for his march on Rome. When this happened, the barbarians came pouring across and there was nobody across most of Europe to stop them.
My 0.02 dinarii -
The Holy Roman Empire was Roman because all Christian empires are Roman. Basically, the general philosophy back then was that Christendom could only have two emperors - Emperor of the Western Roman Empire, and Emperor of the Eastern Roman Empire. By Charlemagne’s time, the eastern crown was firmly in the hands of the Byzantines, but the Western one was up for grabs. Thus, “Roman Empire”. The title of “Emperor” without the title of “Roman” before it wouldn’t have made any sense to them.
It helps if you think of “Western Roman Empireship” as an actual, physical object. The Romans held it, lost it, and a couple of centuries later the Germans had it. Similarly, the Eastern Roman Empireship was held at Constantinople, and once that fell, it was picked up by the Russians, who immediately started calling their kings Caesars - or as they said it, Tsars.
Which is irrelevant to whether or not the Holy Roman Empire should have called themselves that. The way I sees it, they saw themselves as inheritors of the traditions of Rome, they thought of the Empire as Holy, and it was definitely an Empire.
In fact, the ironic thing is that the Western Empire might not have fallen at all save for a twist of fate. “Emperor” Magnus tried a coup with his northern legions and tripped the border garrisons for his march on Rome. When this happened, the barbarians came pouring across and there was nobody across most of Europe to stop them.
No way. Oh, I suppose the Empire might have limped on a few more years - but honestly, it was already pretty much dead by then. The economy had failed, the military was falling apart, the government was non-functional. There were far too many systemic problems for the Western Roman Empire to endure much longer than it did.
No way. Oh, I suppose the Empire might have limped on a few more years - but honestly, it was already pretty much dead by then. The economy had failed, the military was falling apart, the government was non-functional. There were far too many systemic problems for the Western Roman Empire to endure much longer than it did.
Actually, they were in a strong recovery period. The borders of the Empire (save for its division) had not really shrunk, and previous waves of barbarians failed to break the empire. Its fortifications were as strong as ever, and given the troops to man them (which were present before the disaster) they could stop nearly anything. Some of these fortifications were on the level of High Medieval era. Economically, too, the western empire was on the mend. Its economy didn’t really collapse until after the barbarians broke through, and even then pockets of resistance and economic strongholds stayed alive for centuries.