# Scalia opinion:  (Sarcastically) No defendant has had effective representation of counsel in 50 yrs

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/scalia-opinion-sarcastically-no-defendant-has-had-effective-representation-of-counsel-in-50-yrs/815931>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [June 11, 2018, 11:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/scalia-opinion-sarcastically-no-defendant-has-had-effective-representation-of-counsel-in-50-yrs/815931 "2018-06-11T23:46:21Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![UltraVires](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/u/ecccb3/32.png) [@UltraVires](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/UltraVires)\
**Post date:** [June 11, 2018, 11:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/scalia-opinion-sarcastically-no-defendant-has-had-effective-representation-of-counsel-in-50-yrs/815931/1 "2018-06-11T23:46:21Z")

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This is pretty straightforward. I remember a Scalia opinion (probably a dissent) where he sarcastically observed that because of all of the habeas corpus cases that no criminal defendant in the country has received effective assistance of counsel in the last 50 (40?, 60?) years.

Which one is that? Thanks.