Congressional Republicans should be designated as enemy combatants and detained indefinitely without trial.
Holding them accountable for this act of petty treason is a step in the right direction.
Congressional Republicans should be designated as enemy combatants and detained indefinitely without trial.
Holding them accountable for this act of petty treason is a step in the right direction.
But Senators do have an official role in enacting treaties. They can make an official statement that a treaty will or will not be enacted.
It’s speculative, but I’ve gave my reason in my initial post on the subject.
I’m sure they understand that congress passes laws including sanctions laws. That’s not what the Republican letter addresses.
The letter addresses specifically whether an international agreement made by a president without congressional sanction is binding on another president. That’s a bit more nuanced.
But is it necessarily illegal “to intend to influence the actions of the recipient”?
To use a trivial example, if I were to write a letter to the network against the cancellation of my favorite television program?
Little Nemo: Not all agreements with foreign governments constitute treaties requiring Senate action, and which thereby make them US law. For those that do, their public disagreement is expressed by voting against them. Before that? I don’t know of any historic precedent. During the actual negotiations? That is hard to justify, unless you’re of the common view that Obama is a demon who must be opposed no matter what he does, since it’s by definition evil.
You certainly have a First Amendment interest in being able to write such a letter, but that interest is limited: you can threaten to withdraw your viewing and boycott sponsors without losing First Amendment protection but cannot threaten to vivisect the network president’s parakeet in any sort of immediately credible way.
Which example is the most like the Senators’ letter? The boycott, or the vivisection?
That’s a difficult question.
Here’s why: the letter is most like the boycott, in that it’s a quasi-threat but one that’s legal to make, in that it “threatens” a legal consequence.
But remember that this is true because the Logan Act is broken. Congress could, if it chose, constitutionally prohibit such communications.
Two points:
[ol]
[li]This is not a treaty and the Senate is not going to get a shot at approving it (unless of course the Menendez bill is passed and signed into law).[/li][li]Can the Senate make an official statement before they even know what is going to be in the treaty? Doesn’t this interfere with the President’s powers as outlined in Article 2?[/li][/ol]
Which, given the President’s veto power, it obviously won’t be. Menendez is grandstanding like the rest of them.
They have to reject it to find out what’s in it?
No, they should have to find out what’s in it to reject it.
Of course. I was poking fun at another of their favorite memes.
Apparently, they get Schoolhouse Rock in Iran, but not in Alabama. 
I don’t fully agree with the Iranians response, and actually disagree quite strongly with a few points, but holy cow, Senator Cotton just got schooled.
On this issue I agree with the Iranian Foreign Minister a lot more than I agree with the knuckleheads who wrote the letter.
I think we need a lawyer to comment here. Is this guy’s claims correct? It’s hard to imagine that the president would acquire powers not granted by the constitution by virtue of international law, and I would have to think international law only comes into effect after the guy making the international agreement is authorized to make the agreement that he makes.
[I believe there was some legal wrangling over related issues over some foreign criminal sentenced by a state court, but it could be these are not legally the same issue.]
The Vienna Convention on Treaties defines a treaty as an international agreement entered into by two or more states and governed by international law. It could be that executive agreements are not covered by the Convention as far as the U.S. is concerned, for reasons I don’t care to go into right now.
So, the Convention clearly states that countries have to uphold their treaties. It also clearly states that a country can’t point to internal law as being the reason for not upholding a treaty: “A party may not invoke the provisions of its internal law as justification for its failure to perform a treaty.”
It is a reasonable conclusion that in the eyes of international law, the United States can’t get out of valid agreements with other countries by saying, “Hey, we tried, but our law doesn’t let us carry out this agreement.”
From a Constitutional perspective, however, there can be a much different conclusion.
Zarif also says:
But the point is that if the President is not authorized under the US constitution to enter into a treaty without ratification by the Senate, then it would seem that the US has never entered into this treaty under international law either.
I mean, suppose I sign the treaty with Iran on behalf of the US - obviously it would be null and void under international law. To the extent that the president doesn’t have the authority to sign treaties, how does international law come into play to begin with?