# Should President Obama pardon Chelsea Manning?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/should-president-obama-pardon-chelsea-manning/772003>\
**Category:** Great Debates\
**Created:** [November 14, 2016, 9:38pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/should-president-obama-pardon-chelsea-manning/772003 "2016-11-14T21:38:52Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 28

<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Miller](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/miller/32/481_2.png) [@Miller](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Miller)\
**Post date:** [November 16, 2016, 2:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/should-president-obama-pardon-chelsea-manning/772003/28 "2016-11-16T02:54:35Z")

</div>

> [@Shodan](#):
>
> Because some crimes are so morally egregious as to disqualify the criminal from being treated with respect. I am not speaking to the general case of whether or not it is part of common decency to refer to someone with his or her preferred gender. Because in this case it is irrelevant. Suppose it is part of common decency - traitors are not entitled to common decency. Suppose it isn’t - traitors are still not entitled.

Jonathan Pollard was convicted in 1987 for selling state secrets to Israel. Pollard was, himself, a Jew. Given that he was, also, a traitor, would you object to someone referring to Pollard as a kike? If you would object, why does common decency still apply when it comes to using racial slurs to describe a traitor?

---

_[View the full topic](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/should-president-obama-pardon-chelsea-manning/772003)._
