jmullaney, you are still misstating most of your snipped history.
The Spirituals were not condemned for their poverty.
The Spirituals and the Conventuals had an internal battle within the Franciscan community when the Conventuals chose to take their ministry into the universities. I would accept the argument that the Spirituals were closer to the ideals of Francis. However, the issue came to a head when the internal political battles of the Franciscans erupted into physical battles, with the Spirituals physically evicting Conventuals from various monasteries. When the church superiors got involved, the Spirituals denied the authority of the various bishops, abbots, and popes to mediate the dispute. THEY WERE NOT CONDEMNED FOR THEIR POVERTY. They were condemned for numerous differences of theology, especially after they declared that the RCC had no authority at all, that the Sacraments could not be administered by a priest who had sinned, and that they were the only correct interpreters of the Gospels. “Poverty” does not even enter into the actual condemnation.
To claim that this rather complex series of battles and issues, (extending over 70 years with as many religious/political victories by the Spirituals as the Conventuals–although not the last victory, of course), can be stated that the RCC condemned poverty outside a religious order is dishonest.
The same is true of the Beguines and Beghards of the Netherlands (whence Marguerite Porète). In their earliest formation, which often embraced poverty, but never included forming religious orders, they were embraced by the RCC. Later, as they began to deny the validity of the Sacraments and the authority of the church, different groups among them were condemned. Poverty, however, was not the issue. The theological differences between the Beguines/Beghards and the RCC only touched on poverty as one aspect of their differences.
The claim that the RCC condemned any of these people because of their adherence to poverty is simply false.
Your also continue to twist your references to Joseph of Arimathea. Not one of the authors of the Gospels condemns (or evens clucks their tongue at) Joesph, yet you feel free to claim that he was violating the Word of God based on your personal interpretation of the Gospels written by those same people. You are welcome to that interpretation, of course, but it makes no sense in context.
Here’s the quote:
OK, just kidding. This word is also translated race. I’ll admit it is a stretch. Perhaps in someway he is talking about death itself as he does elsewhere when he speaks of the destruction of the temple, metaphorically, as his own death? But I’m not much of an apologist.