Slavoj Zizek and the rise of authoritarian capitalism

Who the hell reads Marx now ? I only read the Communist Manifesto, there’s no way I want to wade through Capital without someone holding my hand through it. I think that’s probably true for most people who aren’t dedicated specialists. i don’t really know how traditional he is, TBH.

It’s THE political fight in Europe. The UK tories are severely going after the welfare state in a maniacally way. Zizek is pessimistic about this, thinks the Euro right is on the ascendant.

Yeah I just meant that the capitalism as it developed from the 18th century was intimately linked with imperialism - materials from the empire being brought back to the industry of Bradford and Sheffield. The resource acquisition of the developed world (led by America now) is still called imperialism though, and not just as a pejorative from the left, even as it is directed from liberal democracies. But yeah Europe isn’t overtly colonialist any more. Apart, maybe, from the Ukraine activity.

But Ukraine is an easy example of how capitalism is still killing people, as we know a lot of money was spent to support a coup there with, I assume, an eye to profit in addition to any political motive.

Yes I agree it wasn’t just communist involved in the major 20thC democides, I was showing that I wasn’t unaware of it because someone always moans about it.

Well, that depends on the ideology, doesn’t it? It’s quite clear that free market ideologies are alive and well, and various forms of anti-government ones too–neoliberalism, in simple terms. And it also seems a bit much to say that “every” non-liberal democratic government in the 20th century has “ended in failure”. What’s your standard?

I love how you use “ideological-based” as a kind of slur. Every government is ideological-based. Mine and yours are based on a fairly conservative, largely free-market, economically liberal ideology that will largely take the interests of corporations over those of the people. This is not the “practical” or “natural” way of thinking about things any more than a socialist variant would be. But I agree that Marx underestimated (in so far as he estimated anything at all) the resilience of the system, and I am not sure that it will collapse any time soon.

It would be surprising if they did not, given that the liberal democratic capitalist version of modernity led to butchery and economic stagnation, too, the first immediately, the second eventually…

There’s no rules period in capitalism. There are only logics; and as you note, the logic of capitalism tends towards exploitation. State constraints (which certainly need not be democractic) can put a damper on this, which is Zizeks point with regard to China, I think–China is unlikely to do so, given that it has no democratic oversight that would force it to.

But you are constantly mixing issues here: countries, democracies, capitalism, are not the same, and not necessarily related things. Western “countries” got along well enough fora while on home-grown labor with relatively high standards of living, until profits necessarily declined, and capitalism (which needs profits) moved its production elsewhere to increase profits again. It’s not like you can say “if only for not having globalization, we could have had a working capitalism”. Globalization is a logical necessity for a system that needs to expand in order to retain its profit margins. You can’t just freeze a version of capitalism that you think is good–it must move on. And this is not even mentioning who paid the bill for the high standards of living in the West–the countries from which the West drew cheap resources and to which it exported products the prevented those countries to build up their own industries.

No it is an empirical observation.

Perhaps it is deeply uncomfortable for the ideology but the reality of history is this - to which the marxists always seem to respond “but the real marxism was not applied…”

it is an accurate usage to highlight a govenrment and movement that has an explicit and an organized political philosophy - an idealoogy - actively motivating it and actively structuring its choices in the application of the policies and the conception of its policies.

We know from actual real history that this form of government politics, this has actively different characteristics from politics that are not consciously so motivated

this is an assertion, based we can assume on a definition that it is likely not he and not I would agree with.

It is not the case every government has a structured and active ideology governing it.

The pragmatic and non-ideological politics are of a different character than those of the philosophising ideological movements.

Of course not, the ordinary word outside of the special political meanings of the marxists invented simply describes a market system.

As this is simply a description of an evolved system of the social interaction for an effective economic exchange, and not a philosophizing system asserted by an organized body it of course does not have the “rules” - other than some general empirical observations that come from the reality of scarcity and the interaction of this supply and an every subjective demand.

After this, rules are things human organizations will develop to channel and organize within a physical reality.

No, it does not. Your definition of “exploitation” is false on a broken theory that was abandoned by all economists except the marxists over 100 years.

Of course all human systems that have evolved since we have left the stage of the family bands have had aspects of an elite group that pulls to itself more resources, which one could give the name exploitation (to adopt not a political philosophy’s peculiar thinking, we can simply use a dictionary definition "the action or fact of treating someone unfairly in order to benefit from their work.

Since we see behaviour like this even among the cousin primate groups, we can suspect it is deeply programmed. So naively expecting a mere political philosophy to resolve is going to have the same results of the past 100+ years.

yes it is a pity the russians are engaging in an imperial endeavor like they have in the Caucusus to defend their imperial

,
Capitalism created the Russian and the ukrainian ethnic nationalisms???

What a very interesting idea to have invented.

Okay, my last reply to you, friend Ramira: it’s pretty clear you do not wish to engage in debate, only in witnessing. Honestly, I’m not sure why you bother. You come in here to say, effectively: “You’re using words wrongly, because the way I use these words is different and correct!” “You’ve no knowledge of history, because the way I interpret history is different and correct!” “You want to debate things that cannot be debated, because I have already decided what the correct empirical observation is!”

So let me quickly, just for my own conscience’s sake, say this. It is clear that you lack any sophisticated understanding of any of the following terms: ideology, capitalism, exploitation, and empiricity, beyond the ideologically-influenced understandings you’ve been fed. That’s sad, but common. We could debate these issues, and my offer to you to exchange our understandings of our respective positions stands, but until you come interest in debate, rather than witnessing, I’m bowing out of speaking to you.

What is not empirical about the observation he made? It is the empirical truth.

I am not impressed by pompous assertions about having or not having “sophisticated” understandings of terms. the ordinary language is fine for me, I have enough of the university degrees to not been impressed by the smoke screen of the assertions about the ‘sophistication.’

We have an assertion of a meaning of the word “exploitation” based on a definition arising from the labor theory of value that all but the marxists abandoned as a theoretical failure in economics, and this by the end of the 19e century.

This is a sterile departure for a supposed “sophistication.”

Even more sterile is arch philosophizing word play, dressed in a claim of ‘sophistication’ to a claim on a higher pedestal avoid simple empirical realities observable from the actual history.

The linked discussionshows the same pattern, it is not debating…

A dialogue of the deaf is not a debate, is a masturbation by at least one party.

Incidentally, I dug up this: Slavoj Zizek on authoritarian capitalism in the London Review of Books.

An interesting read in the typical Zizekian vein, going from French Maoist philosopher Alain Badiou to Kung Fu Panda in just a few lines. I’m not sure I’m buying it all, but it’s an interesting read. Warning, though: it requires a bit of effort, because it needs to be read. Also, if you’ve already decided what’s true, don’t bother going there.

You are out of line. Stop it.

= = =

Enterprise and Ramira, knock it off. Arguing over why you are not going to argue is pointless. Dial back the personal comments in your posts and stick to actually debating the topic without those personal remarks.

[ /Moderating ]

Never mind. Tom got here first.

Just a quick pointer to what you mean by “personal comments” and “insults”, please? No snark, I’m just not getting what I should knock off. This: “you lack any sophisticated understanding of any of the following terms”? If so, apologies…I figured that this was merely a statement of what I perceive to be facts, but I could probably have said “your posts evince a lack of understanding,” or something.

Not to JR. mod, but to be helpful.

As a example: instead of accusing them of not understanding a definition, try supplying the definition of the term or an explanation of the concept that you’re using. If you’re using a “sophisticated” understanding, it’s pretty useless if you keep it to yourself.

Well, but not providing definitions isn’t an insult, though it’s admittedly bad style in a debate (which I’m still looking for!). But I provided a requested explanation for my use of exploitative, which was dismissed thusly:

Now, if asked to explain, I try my best to do so, but Ramira is evidently not interested in explanations. He simply declares meanings for the terms, e.g. for capitalism (“the ordinary word outside of the special political meanings of the marxists invented simply describes a market system”); and that was both self-avowedly an “ordinary” unterstanding (such as it is, anyway) of the word, and made it seem like he’s not especially interested in my definitions of these terms. It seemed to me that to provide more definitions (only to have them called “false,” which makes absolutely no sense, given that that’s just the way I used the word) thereafter would not be a particularly successful gambit–not to mention that understanding=|definitions.

But implying that they’re somehow too unsophisticated to understand the definition that you’re using isn’t debating at all. They didn’t imply that you couldn’t understand the term as understood now, they said the way you’re using it is generally not the way it’s used in economics today.

The best advice I can give is: either prove that the way you’re using the word hasn’t been generally discarded by economists but the followers of Marx, or understand that you’ll need to use a different term to make your point clear.

Indeed.

As for ‘asserting’ definitions, I have simply quoted some non-ideological dictionary type definitions such as for capitalism definitions: *" an economic system in which trade, industry, and the means of production are privately owned and operated via profit and loss calculation (price signals) through the price system." *

If someone wants to use a specific ideological definition, fine, but I have no reason to accept it on its own assertion and I do not have any reason to accept ‘special’ or asserted ‘sophisticated’ definitions or ‘understanding.’

Particularly when the source is using an economic theory as the basis for a supposed “debate” that is out of date and failed in empirical research since over a century, outside of a narrow and special political ideology, and in a prior discussion on essentially the same subject the same assertions were made, the same wounded pretensions and there was no sign of a real engagement with the modern economics.

The case of the use of the word exploitation is clear enough.

So is Zizek is right or wrong ?

Two things: I did not imply with anything I said that I thought anybody was personally too unsophisticated to understand my definitions. “You lack a sophisticated understanding” does not mean “you’re too dumb to understand,” else I would hardly have wasted my time by offering to participate in an exchange on the matter of values, no? And second, the fact that “they” are evidently not interested in taking my definitions doesn’t strike you as more substantively problematical? I defined exploitation; someone else claims the definition is “false”. What am I to do, in your mind? Just use a different term that doesn’t mean what I need to express?

And exactly why should I prove that economists have not discarded a term (which term are we talking about, anyway?)!? What does that prove, or not? And WHICH economists? Neoliberal ones? Keynesian ones? Marxist ones? There’s all of these. Here’s one (Wikipedia) Marxist economist who insists on the necessity to speak of exploitation, for example. Does that do anything at all?

Again: I am perfectly happy to use whatever terms are necessary to debate these things, but not on a basis where the other party gets to decide what terms are amenable to them for nebulous (and yes, ideological, just like mine) reasons. (The Wikipedia definition of capitalism which has already been supplied is not too shabby, but not particularly great either, certainly not in the abbreviated version supplied here (to list price discrimination before wage labor and capital accumulation makes no sense, for example).)

Try not to create straw men in the mournful pretension of being wronged.

If one ceases obfuscation it is clear that this is about the word exploitation. There is no statement that the term has been discarded (or not). The issues is a particular definition asserted based on what has been discarded by economics, and that is the labor theory of value - by all but the orthodox marxists, and this since over 100 years.

This is relevant because I asked for what the definition of exploitative based on this bald assertion thrown into the discussion:

the question was

of course by the framing it was easy to guess the person was relying on the typical old bankrupt marxism, but it was useful to get the response.

you answered quoting someone using the labor theory of value, in all its failure:

Ergo, the assertion thrown in is based on a failed and disused economical theory (as was laid out by multiple persons in the other thread which is linked here and which were hand waived away within a package of very ironical complaining).

this being clarified there is not anything to add, particularly as I linked the same conversation occurred with good inputs and there is no sign any substantive information was absorbed, so what point would there be in repeating such futility?

the source of the assertion being exposed, one understands enough.

Actually it quite clear that there is nothing but a demarche to put everything in the marxist frame and otherwise use that rhetoric… (it is a repitition of mischaracterisation, the supposed no sense of the listing of price discrimination is merely citing one of many points that was not engaged or hand waived away in the other thread to highlight why repeating the marxist analysis circling is sterile as the arch idea of a debate)

Ramira, before I try to engage you again, please be so kind as to answer me two questions: are you willing to talk to me on the basis that the things I talk about *may *have some validity, even just hypothetically? If not, I don’t see the point. I also don’t see the need for your perpetual hostility. And secondly, would you terribly mind losing the perpetual accusations of intellectual dishonesty without clearly pinpointing where you see them? I asked an honest question of scabpicker, because I was not sure what his point was about. If it is about exploitation, ask you insist, would you kindly tell me why the Wikipedia cite of a Yale economist who is perfectly satisfied using a fully Marxist-derived version of exploitation to describe contemporary capitalism isn’t good enough for you?

We can still have a debate about the topics of your choice with regard to this. You’ve refused so far to enumerate why you think the labor theory of value doesn’t work (in the other thread, my discussion partners had a bit of a hard time understanding what the theory said, so I would be happy to see what you think about it in particular). Here are the ground rules I would propose for such a debate: you will cease using such terms as “obfuscation” and “straw man” to describe my arguments, unless you can describe how they are (I don’t even know, honestly, what you’re talking about right now); and in lieu of simply dismissing my arguments out of hand as “bankrupt”, “failed and dismissed”, and so on, unless you have yourself given evidence, or at least some reasoning for this, you provide substantive rebuttals to them. And I’ll do the same.

I get that it’s easy to just say “we’ve provided THIS significant input, whereas YOU have only said the same old trite nonsense over and over,” but please see that it looks exactly the same way from my vantage point. And yet, here I am.

Why I do not think the labor theory does not work?

This is silly.

Again, modern economics of all types except for the doctrinaire marxistes discarded the concept over a century ago.

The multiple failings were already pointed out in the last thread. It is enough to note that this discussion made no impact at all.