Yes! That’s EXACTLY what the Nineteenth Amendment did! And very appropriately, I might add: the courts were not asked to read the Fourteenth Amendment and discover in its text a right for women to vote. Instead, our elected representatives ratified an amendment to the Constitution to secure that right.
No, that’s the standard language. The Fifteenth Amendment says the same thing about the vote for blacks: “The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.” Yet it’s clear that they had not “always” had that right. The phrase is simply directatory: it establishes the right and forbids the US or any state from denying or abridging it.
Sure. That’s exactly the way it was for a while: some states permitted women the vote and others did not. And fashioning a judicial solution to that based on the Fourteenth Amendment would have been wrong.
Who’s arguing the presence of the injustice? Not I. I am arguing over the correct means to fix it.
(By “injustice” I mean the unequal access to the rights and privileges available to opposite-sex couples through marriage. I do not concede that the very word “marriage” being unavailable to same-sex couples represents an injustice. As long as there is an equivalent state under the law, I have no problem with it… indeed, I have proposed before that government remove itself completely form ‘marriage’ and grant civil unions to ALL couples, with ‘marriage’ to be left to individual religious traditions.)