Spittin' On A Cop? That's 35 Years

Sure, some people believe that, but does that mean that an HIV+ person should be charged with assault with a deadly weapon if he touches someone else? You can kill someone with a hammer, and you can kill someone with a syringe, but you can’t kill someone with spit (unless you submerge their heads in it and drown them or something, but that would take a LOT of spit)

If you are on a street corner selling baggies full of baking soda pretending that they are cocaine, do the cops:

  1. leave you alone because there is no crime against selling baking soda
    or
  2. charge you will selling cocaine

?

I think it’s attempted murder, and I would be happy if the guy responsible never saw the light of day again.

Arrest you for fraud?

That’s a good third choice, but I believe that you are charged with selling and/or possession of the real deal…

Well, typically there’s a law that covers that situation, for precisely this reason. In Virginia, § 18.2-248 provides: “…it shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture, sell, give, distribute, or possess with intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance.”

Correct me if I’m wrong, but doesn’t 90% of this type of law boil down to intent? If by hocking a lunger at the good officer, the bum INTENDED to pass on the aids, then he’s guilty, which seems clear by the taunting afterward.

Yep. Assault, menacing, or some similar crime.

This isn’t substantively different than when a boxer gets into a fight on the street and is charged with Assault with a Deadly Weapon. The ability to inflict great harm exists, so all that remains is intent. If the hypothetical boxer is the assailant, he gets charged. If he is defending himself, he shouldn’t be charged.

This guy intended to hurt the police officer, so in spite of the fact that he has no knowledge of how AIDS is spread he’s still responsible for his attempt to inflict grievous harm upon the police officer, so I’m fine with the finding of ADW.

But the fact remains that the Texas penal code as quoted by Captain Amazing up there states that a deadly weapon is:

Saliva is neither of these things. Now, if someone wanted to make a charge of attempted murder, or assault, no problem, but ADW without the deadly weapon is just silly.

If I attack you with a knife, stab you in the abdonmen (taking care to avoid the liver) and tell you as I’m stabbing you that you won’t die, do you still want me to be hit with ADW?

At what point does intent overpower the substance of the attack?

A knife is a deadly weapon, according to the definition provided in the relevant Texas law. What you do with it is irrelevant, it need only be capable of causing death.

Similarly, the spittle of an HIV patient is not a deadly weapon by said definition.

I don’t think the bolded part is true. The cases I’ve found seem to indicate that such a charge would not hold up in most jurisdictions.

You’d be wrong, that from Texas, no less.

The court affirmed that hands can be considered deadly weapons. The specific charge was murder.

There’s actually a case from Ohio, State v Price, which also deals with the question “Is spit from an HIV-positive person a ‘deadly weapon’?” Here’s the appelate finding that it is:
http://bulk.resource.org/courts.gov/states/Ohio.Ct.App.05/2005-ohio-4150.pdf

Actually, I am not wrong considering I said most jurisdictions. Your initial statement seemed to imply that this was a regular thing as opposed ot something that may happen in extraordinary circumstances. As it says here:

Here:

I stand by my statement that such a charge would not hold up in most jurisdictions.

Wow, what a great out you constructed for yourself there. You said I was wrong, then you qualified it so you couldn’t be.

You must be a lawyer.

Actually, they found that spit from a person with HIV and heomphilia is a deadly weapon, because such a person has adequate blood in their spit to possibly infect a person. Indeed I’d say that case supports the idea that our homeless person from the OP’s case did not commit assault with a deadly weapon, because it states that the pertinent question is whether the alleged weapon can cause death (not merely if the attacker thinks it can cause death). According to the experts in the Ohio case, the spit of a person with HIV and hemophilia can do so. According to the CDC, the spit of a person with only HIV cannot.

ETA: the accused in the Ohio state also not only spat on his victim, but also bit him as well, again making transmission possible, while in the Texas case it was not.

Right :dubious: . Not to mention your own cite doesn’t back up your initial claim that those determinations were based on him being a boxer.

I don’t see any evidence that he was charged because of his special knowledge or training. Either way, I don’t want to further sidetrack the debate at hand.

I didn’t assert that it did,nor did I say that such things always happened, nor did I say that they happened with any sort of regularity. What I said was “This isn’t substantively different than when a boxer gets into a fight on the street and is charged with Assault with a Deadly Weapon. The ability to inflict great harm exists, so all that remains is intent. If the hypothetical boxer is the assailant, he gets charged. If he is defending himself, he shouldn’t be charged.”

It was an example, and why you decided to run with that as if it were the norm is beyond me. Yet you told me that ADW cannot involve fists, and I demonstrated that it could, so you gave me the qualifier, as if I didn’t already understand that qualification.

Top notch work right there.