Taking a stand on moral relativism

Well then, let’s stop hijacking the thread.

Regarding the OP: I object strongly to the idea that there are no privileged viewpoints. The concept of “truth” itself requires considering what things actually are, not what they seem to be.

There are theories where certain properties (such as length or mass in Relativity, for example) depend on the relative relationship between the thing and the observer. But those theories define precisely how those properties depend on the relative relationship: it’s possible to determine how things would seem from any particular viewpoint.

I do not see that moral relativism, as it has been discussed in this thread, grants a similar unified understanding of morality.

Agreed. However, you really should consider starting a new thread on the topic. It has been a lively debate, and I would love to see your answers to my last two posts on the subject.

Why do you assume that there must be an objective “truth” with regard to morality in the first place? As far as I can tell, it’s because you feel that the purpose of morality is the perpetuation of the species, and therefore there must be an objective “right” and “wrong” way of going about it.

Moral relativists, however, make no such assumption. To a moral relativist, morality is more of an aesthetic issue than it is one of objective reality, and can only be described within the framework of human consciousness and choice. Asking whether one moral system is objectively more correct than another moral system makes no more sense to a moral relativist than, say, asking whether the music of Mozart is objectively “better” or “more correct” than the works of Bach.

That’s because moral relativism does not claim to provide such a unified understanding. Moral relativism does not espouse specific principles, but instead says that there can be many different principles that are equally valid, depending on the circumstances and attitudes of a given society.

You want to know how moral relativism can be used to provide the answer as to which moral systems are “correct.” Moral relativism, however, holds that there is no such thing as a “correct” system in the first place. Some systems are better than others, perhaps, but even that is by necessity a value judgment that can only be resolved through logic and reason without looking to any “absolute principles.”

Regards,

Barry

** I agree that I think that, but I disagree with the point that I think there’s an objective “truth” because I think that.

If there isn’t any objective truth, then why bother debating it? There’s nothing to debate: it’ll just be statings of opinions and counter-opinions until the end of time.

** Okay – what does it actually mean for something to “only be described within the framework of human consciousness and choice”?

** So it’s not better than white noise either? Somehow I doubt that…

Why depending on a society? Why not each individual?

Now, this is nonsensical. How can logic and reason resolve the matter without there being standards that are taken for granted? At best, we should ensure that a position was completely consistent with an utterly arbitrary set of standards – and to someone who held different standards, there would be no “resolution”.

Really, I’m not of the opinion that we’ve hijacked the thread at all. The presentation of what one thinks of as an absolute moral system is certainly a way to undermine relativism by countering the second point (ie no privileged system). Certainly we might be going deeper into TVAA’s system than is warranted, but where else is the discussion going to go? If he rejects the second point, we want to know why; for him to know why, he has to have such a privileged system, and demonstrate it.

The particular tack here is one of moral realism, ie there are moral facts. That’s not a problem for relativism (if it were, there would be no epistemological relativism, which there is).

Sticking with epistemological relativism (truth is relative to something or other), it is mostly rejected through the notion that reality exists in a knowable way ie through epistemological investigations. Of course, that’s a naive rejection; as philosophers of science soon recognize, mutually exclusive independent theories can explain the pregiven lifeworld(ie naive sensory world) and the data we collect from it. This presents people with a sort of paradox; on one hand, the privileged system exists by assumption ie the world is knowable, but on the other hand, we seem to know more than there is to know ie there is a plurality of incomplete theories and an inability to select between them either because of human limitations or otherwise.

And so it goes with moral epistemology as well, the naive assumption (and, perhaps I should note at this point that I am not using ‘naive’ in a negative sense, but rather in a sense of ‘first approximation’ ie as it seems without further investigation; no value judgment is implied; see naive realism for further ideas on the use of the word in this sense) that there exist moral absolutes. The source of this, in some cases, is quite clear: god, being the source of all knowledge or containing all knowledge, knows these moral facts and so they must exist. Other cases are possible, which TVAA suggests.

This other case would come from the unification of realist epistemology, just mentioned two paragraphs up, with moral epistemology. That is, a sort of deflationary conception of morality as real in the sense that this chair or desk is real, rather than a Moorean realism where such an equality of morality with ontology is a fallacy (see the naturalistic fallacy for more information). That is to say, moral facts are open to investigation in the same way facts about other things are, something we might say is moral naturalism. Moore mounts a pretty vicious attack against this (since, indeed, he considers it a fallacy) in The Principia Ethica by undermining hedonism, utilitarianism, and evolutionary morality (which, in fact, he showed to be logically reducable to various hedonisms) through this naturalism. The naturalistic fallacy is easily summarized as equating “good” with some natural property or properties. Why he considers this a fallacy is not a matter for this post, really, as it is more involved than I can do justice from memory alone, but the upshot is mainly that good is an unanalyzable concept, sometimes called atomic concepts, which other things are or have but which is not, itself, equal with anything ie it has its own unique conceptual identity.

What is important to note here is what, I think, most of us who aren’t TVAA have been trying to point out, that whether or not the existence of an absolute morality is assumed, its discovery is something altogether different. With evolution, the problem of limited means (an inability to enumerate the set, one might say, and lo someone has) and atavasism crush any hope of finding the final word on morality. The plurality of theories that “evolve” are, perhaps, able to be relatively compared (ie compared with respect to each other and from each other) but not known in any absolute sense, as such a sense is actually beyond our ken. Our method of comparison is then what relativism indicates in (1) in my OP: that which moral judgments are relative to, which is any one of the plural systems themselves.

I won’t elaborate on other paradoxes of absolutism (ie how limited means creates a plurality) since those have not actually come up in this thread.

To continue, then, I might illustratively deal with TVAA’s “absolute” in a sense he might be comfortable with, even if by analogy. General relativity is an example of relativism in a scientific sense, the notion that measurements of assumed real quantities are relative to the frame of the observer. There is no sense in which any measurement is more or less valid, except by way of referencing the frame, which in fact is never privileged ie no privileged frame of reference or measurement exists. The unspoken assumption of most scientific pursuit, that an absolute reality exists, is of little importance other than to provide us with a conceptual way to translate frames into one another via mathematical manipulations. Of course, that we may do so does nothing to create a privileged frame. An important point, I think.

The problem with this deflationary morality, however, is that to make the deflation complete, one must close the is-ought gap in order to make things that ought to be, be. Unfortunately, the survival criteria does not live up to this: that there are selective mechanisms does not in fact assure us that what ought to be will be in order to prosper. Like all eliminative methodologies, they suffer from the fact that we only know what is incorrect, never what is correct. This is not a huge problem unless one demands we consider something correct ie absolute. For the same reasons Popper never wants to say science proves anything, any eliminative methodology must conceed that only because of the assumption that there is a “correct” will we ever get to it by a process of elimination (word to the wise: teleological implications abound). The unspoken assumption here is that incorrect is also static ie absolute; no atavism can be the case, what is eliminated can never come back. We do not have that luxury on evolutionary models, however.

In an ideal deflation, we would enumerate the entire set of morals for the entire set of contexts (which are gleaned from our scientific pursuits). Since this is impossible, it is not clear that we will ever reach the fabled perfect moral system (which may or may not be guaranteed, TVAA admits). Also since this is impossible, it is not clear at any time that we’ve reached a good system. Since good changes contextually (it is mapped to selective pressures which are totally external to moral agents), and our only TVAA-valid method of judgment can only be used in hindsight,

  1. at any moment there are a plurality of moral systems that insist they work and
  2. none of them hold any authority over any other and
  3. the previous decimation of a population is not a guarantee of wrongness due to atavism and so
  4. the methodology is not something we can then actually use to select among the plural systems of (1) so
  5. relativism holds in evolutionary morality even though
  6. it is by [naturalistic] assumption absolute and objective.

Huh? Sorry, but you lost me there with all the indefinite pronouns.

Are you saying that you do believe that there is an objective truth regarding morality, but that this belief does not derive from your belief that morality is founded in evolutionary principles? If so, then why do you believe there is an objective truth with regard to morality? Many absolute moralists believe in objective truth because of their belief that all morality derives from God, and that without God there can be no morality. Where does your belief in objective truth come from?

It depends on what you mean by “it” (as in, “why bother debating it?”) If there is no objective truth, then it certainly makes no sense to debate what that truth is. However, when you have some people claiming that there is an objective truth, and that this truth means that we need to act in a certain way, then it becomes very important to debate whether or not there is such a truth in the first place, whether it can or should be applied to all situations, etc.

Besides, just because there is no objective truth does not mean that we cannot use logic and reason to determine which moral systems are better in a subjective sense. And part of the debate is to determine what that subjective sense should be (e.g., the greatest good for the greatest number).

It means that the concept of “morailty” only has meaning when applied to situations where choice is an option. Choice is only possible where there is intelligence (non-sentient organisms are goverend by instinct and stimulus-response behavior). Most people don’t talk about morailty when describing the actions of wolves or amoebas, only when discussing man’s ability to choose between good and bad acts.

Now, you may think that “morailty” can be applied equally to all living things, and that’s your right. But that’s not the standard definition of the term. Again, I think you really mean “instinct” whenever you say “morality”.

It depends on what the perceived goal is, as well the the particular circumstances in which it is applied. I cannot say absolutely whether Bach is better than Beethoven. I could, however, say that Beethoven does a better job of expressing emotion through his music than Bach, and if the goal is to find music that has apparent emotional context then Beethoven is the one to choose. And if the goal is to provide a soothing sound by which to fall asleep, then “white noise” may very well be better than Bach or Beethoven.

The same is true with moral systems, according to moral relativism. A system which allows slavery may be better suited for certain situations than one which does not, for example.

Because morality is, at its heart, a system dealing with interactions between individuals. Therfore, if each
individual has his own moral system, interaction between individuals becomes as problematic as if every driver were free to choose which side of the road to drive on. There’s no absolute objective truth that determines which side of the road is the “best” to drive on, but it is important that everybody in a particular society agrees which side it should be.

See everything I have written above. Even if there are standards that are taken for granted, they don’t have to be “absolute” or “objective” standards – just standards that are agreed upon, or which lead to a desired outcome by society as a whole. If the desired outcome is “peace at all costs,” then one type of moral system might be best. If the desired outcome is “equal treatment for all, above all else,” then another moral system may be best. If the desired outcome is “greatest happiness for the greatest number of people,” then a third moral system might be the best.

Reason and logic allows us to determine what the desired outcome of a particular society is, and then determine whether the existing moral system is best suited to meet that desired outcome.

Reason and logic also allows to to hypothesis some underlying principles which, while not absolute, may be used to evaluate moral systems. “Greatest good for the greatest number of people,” for example, may not be an absolute principal, and it may in fact be a wholly incorrect principle upon which to base a moral system, but logic and reason can easiily lead one to believe that it is a good and workable principle upon which to base moral systems.

Moral relativists realize that they can be wrong when making a moral judgment or when comparing two moral systems, since there is not “objective truth” to rely upon. That doesn’t mean they are unable to make those judgments, however, or that the judgments must be completely random.

Barry

Quine and Popper, among others but they’re famous logicians so carry some weight, largely gave up the objective truth for the inter-subjective. Just an FYI. :slight_smile:

Just some quick follow-up comments to what just said…

Most people would agree that there are no “objective truths” when it comes to music or art. Some people prefer Mozart to Metallica, Michaleangelo to Monet, and vice versa. Aesthetics is another example of something that can only be described within the framework of human consciousness and choice.

Musical and artistic value judgments change over time. Many of those who grew up listenting to Bach were appalled at what Beethoven dared to call “music.” Later generations, however, decided that Beethoven was, in fact, a master composer. There was no “objective truth” in deciding whether Beethoven was good or not.

Moral relativists feel that morality is the same type of entity as aesthetics, that it is possible to make value judgements within each sphere without needing to resort to “objective truths” to do so.

Barry

erislover: I forgot to mention this before, but I just wanted to say that your previous post has got to be the densest (in terms of a high signal to noise ratio) that I have ever seen.

:smiley:

Barry

Errr… make that your penultimate post. I didn’t notice that little one-liner that you snuck in between my posts… :wink:

** Not if we hold to the meaning of “explain”. It’s trivially obvious that we can generate an “explanation” for any event, but it’s quite another thing to explain something well. “Magic invisible gnomes did it” is an explanation, and one that can be applied to any event, but it has no power: it doesn’t permit us to draw any conclusions or make predictions. It is virtually without content.

It’s not possible for there to be mutually exclusive theories that explain the experienced world equally well and can both be correct, although there can be compatible ones. Why?

If either theory can’t explain everything, it is known to be inaccurate or incomplete, and is thus incorrect. If both theories can explain the same phenomena, then they cannot be incompatible – if they were, they would have to differ in their predictions, and we’ve just ruled that out.

We can have limited theories that explain different aspects of the world and are mutually exclusive. Indeed, that happens quite often: at the moment, there are two mutually exclusive explanations for high-temperature superconductivity, each of which successfully predicts certain aspects of the phenomenon but also rules out others which are known to occur. It’s quite a problem for material physics.

** Objection! The “world” is knowable by definition: it’s what we experience, and thus are aware of.

** If the two theories actually work, and work equally well, then they’re compatible. If they’re limited, then we know that we don’t yet know some things.

** The universe is. This is a circular definition, as is describes what the universe does. There is no need to inquire farther, which is good, as it’s not possible to go farther. There is no farther that can be gone.

** I’ve seen those arguments before. I haven’t been impressed. Their proponents prove that certain things are invalid by assuming they are invalid.

The idea that “good” is an atomic concept is not only logically but experimentally invalid, for reasons I shall detail shortly.

** I wish to make this absolutely clear: this drawback is common to ALL methods of determining conclusions on ANY subject. There is no escape.

** But the absolute reality of Relativity lies in the relationship of one frame to another. It’s not that we’ve abandoned the idea of truth, it’s just that what we’re asserting is true has changed. Instead of one perspective being the truth that all others are distortions of, it’s the relationship between the perspectives that is absolutely true.

** There is no “ought to be”. There is only what is.

It’s a very old and very basic question: if a particular event never takes place, at all, anywhere and anytime in the entire universe, can it be said to have been possible? If I never encounter a situation where I attempt to swim, can it truly be said that I could have swam?

Possibility is closely linked with the acknowledgement of human ignorance. In a causal universe, only those things that happen are “possible”, but since we can never be able to determining precisely what will happen, we consider things in terms of possibility and probability. They are artifacts of our minds and our limitations; it is not at all clear whether they are objectively meaningful concepts.

** Quibble: this is literally incorrect. Knowing that thing A is incorrect means knowing that thing ~A is correct. I presume you mean this in the imprecise, vernacular sense.

** If no such equilibrium is ever reached, then it’s not possible.

  1. Yes.
  2. Says who? You’re assuming an absolute that you’ve yet to demonstrate.
  3. Incorrect. Failure is wrong by definition; at best, it was partially correct but unable to respond appropriately to a specific challenge.
  4. Somewhat incorrect. The same limitation applies to all such systems.
  5. Incorrect.
  6. Correct. Keep in mind precisely what it is that we’re considering to be absolute and objective, here. Imprecision immediately leads to error.

** Not if we hold to the meaning of “explain”. It’s trivially obvious that we can generate an “explanation” for any event, but it’s quite another thing to explain something well. “Magic invisible gnomes did it” is an explanation, and one that can be applied to any event, but it has no power: it doesn’t permit us to draw any conclusions or make predictions. It is virtually without content.

It’s not possible for there to be mutually exclusive theories that explain the experienced world equally well and can both be correct, although there can be compatible ones. Why?

If either theory can’t explain everything, it is known to be inaccurate or incomplete, and is thus incorrect. If both theories can explain the same phenomena, then they cannot be incompatible – if they were, they would have to differ in their predictions, and we’ve just ruled that out.

We can have limited theories that explain different aspects of the world and are mutually exclusive. Indeed, that happens quite often: at the moment, there are two mutually exclusive explanations for high-temperature superconductivity, each of which successfully predicts certain aspects of the phenomenon but also rules out others which are known to occur. It’s quite a problem for material physics.

** Objection! The “world” is knowable by definition: it’s what we experience, and thus are aware of.

** If the two theories actually work, and work equally well, then they’re compatible. If they’re limited, then we know that we don’t yet know some things.

** The universe is. This is a circular definition, as is describes what the universe does. There is no need to inquire farther, which is good, as it’s not possible to go farther. There is no farther that can be gone.

** I’ve seen those arguments before. I haven’t been impressed. Their proponents prove that certain things are invalid by assuming they are invalid.

The idea that “good” is an atomic concept is not only logically but experimentally invalid, for reasons I shall detail shortly.

** I wish to make this absolutely clear: this drawback is common to ALL methods of determining conclusions on ANY subject. There is no escape.

** But the absolute reality of Relativity lies in the relationship of one frame to another. It’s not that we’ve abandoned the idea of truth, it’s just that what we’re asserting is true has changed. Instead of one perspective being the truth that all others are distortions of, it’s the relationship between the perspectives that is absolutely true.

** There is no “ought to be”. There is only what is.

It’s a very old and very basic question: if a particular event never takes place, at all, anywhere and anytime in the entire universe, can it be said to have been possible? If I never encounter a situation where I attempt to swim, can it truly be said that I could have swam?

Possibility is closely linked with the acknowledgement of human ignorance. In a causal universe, only those things that happen are “possible”, but since we can never be able to determining precisely what will happen, we consider things in terms of possibility and probability. They are artifacts of our minds and our limitations; it is not at all clear whether they are objectively meaningful concepts.

** Quibble: this is literally incorrect. Knowing that thing A is incorrect means knowing that thing ~A is correct. I presume you mean this in the imprecise, vernacular sense.

** If no such equilibrium is ever reached, then it’s not possible.

  1. Yes.
  2. Says who? You’re assuming an absolute that you’ve yet to demonstrate.
  3. Incorrect. Failure is wrong by definition; at best, it was partially correct but unable to respond appropriately to a specific challenge.
  4. Somewhat incorrect. The same limitation applies to all such systems.
  5. Incorrect.
  6. Correct. Keep in mind precisely what it is that we’re considering to be absolute and objective, here. Imprecision immediately leads to error.

** Correct. It’s actually the other way around: I hold that morality is based in evolutionary principles because there is an objective truth regarding morality.

** Moreover, such a hypothetical is not possible. It’s self-refuting: if there is no objective truth, nothing is.

** I disagree. Such issues are resolved by the definition of truth itself. The question of whether you should follow an objective morality is tautological. Should do you the things you should do, or not?

** If there is no objective truth, there is no subjective. How can logic and reason work only subjectively?

** I am confronted by multiple levels of error, here.

  1. Plenty of creatures have “choice” in the sense we usually mean it. There are countless psychological studies of the choices made by, say, rats. Important knowledge about the nature of learning and concept selection have derived from these studies; while you’re free to insist that these aren’t examples of true choice, be aware of what you reject in the process.

  2. “Sentient” creatures are composed of the same processing bits as other creatures. How does “choice” arise from simple behaviors that you seem to suggest do not involve it? Do neurons have “choice”?

  3. If you can demonstrate that learning is not dependent on both inherent forces and external stimuli, there’s a Nobel Prize awaiting you in several different fields.

** And what most people do is obviously correct, yes?

No.

** No, you might be able to say that you perceive more emotion in Beethoven’s work than Bach’s.

** Very well – if music fans say that Bach is better than Beethoven (for example), what is the goal to which they refer?

** Why? What’s wrong with the “problematic” issues that arise?

And there is no morality where other people are not involved?

** Multiple levels of assumptions. Here are the most troublesome:

  1. You have yet to demonstrate that morality is determined by society.

  2. You take for granted that some systems are objectively better at reaching certain goals than others.

** Really? How do reason and logic accomplish the task of telling us what we should want?

** They can also lead us to believe that they are not. This argument is irrelevant.

More questions for TVAA:
[ol]
[li]If a society fails, how can we determine whether the failure was due to an incorrect moral system or some other cause? You really can’t blame the moral system for being unable to repond to, say, a volcanic eruption, can you? How about an invasion?[/li]
[li]Earlier in this thread, you said the following:[/li]

What justification do we have for the assumption that the perpetuation of the self/species is the best way to judge the correctness of that society’s moral system? Surival of a society is certainly one possible “goal” of morality, but why must it be the only or most important goal? As I’ve mentioned earlier, another possible goal might be “the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people.” Or perhaps “the smoothest interaction between individuals within a society.” One could argue, for example, that a society that exists for 100 years wherein everybody is happy is “better” than a society that survives for 1000 years with 50% of the population enslaved and miserable. Just like one could argue that it’s “better” for an individual to live 50 healthy and happy years than 75 years in pain and anguish.

Can you acknowledge that it is possible for there to be alternate “functions” for morality, and that your theory only makes sense if we assume that the function is as you have stated? I know that you believe that your definition of the function of morality is the correct one, but can you acknowledge that it doesn’t have to be the correct one?[/ol]

Barry

** Now I know that I’ve failed to communicate this concept properly: your question is meaningless. By definition, failure demonstrates an inability to adapt to the environment.

Tell me, why can’t I “blame the moral system” for being unable to produce adaptive behaviors?

It’s not an assumption. I’ve attempted to explain this before: I’ll do so when I return, as it’s going to take a while.

OK. And why do you feel that there is an objective truth regarding morality?

I think you are once again redefining terms, or at least using them in a specialized sense. If “the question of whether you should follow an objective morality is tautological,” then we do not have a choice whether to follow it or not. It becomes merely a description of why people do what they do, and not what they should do. Unfortunately, the study of morality is a study of what people should or should not do, and is not concerned with why we act the way we do. That is not to say that your theory is without merit (although it may be for other reasons), but it’s not a theory of “morality.”

Be that as it may. I would still argue that rats do not make conscious choices in the same way people do, but I cannot prove this assertion and its irrelevant to the point I was making anyway. The point is that, with the apparent sole exception of TVAA, everybody else who talks about “morality” does so with reference to human beings making choices. Whatever it is you are talking about, it is not “morality.”

When it comes the usage of common terms in a discussion, I would say that yes, what most people do is obviously correct. Otherwise, meaningful communication becomes impossible (as evidenced by this thread).

No, I can say it. In fact, I just did. You may disagree and say that you perceive more emotion in Bach’s work, and that’s O.K. as well. Since there is no objective truth at play, both opinions are equally valid.

It depends on the music fan. Perhaps some fans prefer contrapuntal melodies and tiered dynamics, and think that music that exhibits these qualities is “better” than music which does not. Perhaps other music fans prefer music with a steady rhythm.

I’m sorry, but could you be more specific? What problematic issues are those? Who said anything about them arising? And what does this have to do with my anology of people in a society agreeing on which side of the road to drive on in the absence of there being an “objective truth”.

And you have yet to demonstrate that it isn’t.

I do? Funny, I don’t remember saying that…

Barry

So, if you have a society living in complete peace and harmony for 1000 years until a volcano erupts without warning and buries the entire society in ash, the society’s moral code is to blame for not adapting to withstanding scalding temperatures and living without oxygen? Or if, say, an asteroid falls from the sky and wipes out the society, the society’s moral code is to blame for them not being able to detect and/or deflect the incoming asteroid? Hoo-boy…

Oh, maybe because there are some things that cannot be adapted to that can still cause the failure of a society? Or perhaps its because the purpose of a “moral system” is not to produce adaptive behaviors in the first place (I realize that you think this is the purpose, but that’s still an unproven and unjustified assumption). Or perhaps a society is made up of more factors than simply its moral system, and more than one factor may take precedence when determining the survivability of the society. Why must the society’s moral system be the sole determinating factor?

Of course it’s an assumption! You’ve chosen to define the term morality in terms of “survival/perpetuation” of the species, and have argued nonstop from that assumption, but it’s still not only an assumption on your part, but also an assumption that nobody else in this thread seems to share.

Again, I ask you, what justification do you have to assume that the “function” of morality is the perpetuation of the species? Is it simply that man is a product of evolution, and therefore everything that man does is also a product of evolution, and therefore since the underlying principle of evolution is survival of the species, this underlying principle must also be the sole method of evaluating everything that man does? Is that it? Have I nailed it? Is that really what you are saying, all sophistry and semantic games stripped away? Have I parted the curtain to reveal the little old man operating the levers?

I’m reminded of a discussion I once had in a philosophy class discussing Nietzche. It was argued that man is incapable of performing an “unnatural” act since man is, by definition, a product of nature. Therefore, whatever a man does is by definition “good” since it follows natural laws. An interesting theory, but not terribly useful when attempting to make moral jusgments.

Regards,

Barry

TVAA, if you use “correct”, “better”, “more [quality]” one more time without taking the time to notice where this comes from, I’m going to stop debating. The entire idea of relativism is to point out assumptions necessary to drive conclusions, and how these assumptions can differ to create different systems. You somehow realize that justifications come to an end somewhere, and yet still feel we can justify the justifications. Why this is so remains out of my reach. I’ve tried to indicate, in quite simple terms early on, illustrations of different “systems of validity” that cannot validate themselves or be validated by something else. I attempted first to do this with set theory. Apparently that did not do. I tried to illustrate this with the notion that eliminative strategies are always incomplete, leaving plural systems that we cannot choose between, and that did not do it. I tried to make a very obvious analogy to scientific relativisty theory, which you still somehow manage to pull “absolute truth” from.

Somehow, in the TVAA world, we can set up an absolute system, have it be absolutely justified, but never have moral agents know it or be able to use it. If this is a fair idea of your morality, then there is little more for us to say here. We obviously disagree on morality to the extent that we don’t even use the word “morality” the same way.

Yes, to do something well we need a method of valuation. There exists more than one method of valuation: obvious by inspection.

If we start with the assumption that there exists only one correct theory, no. However, the systems we use to determine correctness in various contexts might not be able to select among the various systems that will arise. Example: survival as a criterion does not tell us whether it is better to live as a human or a cockroach; survival as a criterion does not indicate whether we should perform terrorist acts, fight terrorist acts, or be as close to pacifism as possible.

Your imagination suffers here. It is possible to generate theories that agree on a finite number of points but still differ in predictions. This is part of the reason why we use predictions to test theories.

Again your imagination is not up to the task. Being aware of something does not mean, to most people who care to think about it, that it is knowable, even if it exists by definition. For reading on this point, a destruction of self, math, and inductive reasoning I suggest Hume’s Treatise to flex your brain.

I agree: there is no escape from relativism.

Of course. Didn’t I say that? The problem isn’t the assumption of its existence, it is in its measurement and estimations and valuations which are relative to frames. Hence, “relativity” theory.

Uh-huh. “Relative absolute”, eh Spiritus?

Obviously, for that is a tautology. Which is why the “is-ought” gap is there, and a problem for absolute systems to successfuly describe what people should do.

Only to you would what I said be imprecise. Our goal was not to affirm ~A. Surely you realize this.

Good question. Why do you suppose it matters?

Failure? Ah, yes, TVAA-speak for death of a population that holds a particular goal. If survival determines correctness, and they didn’t survive, then how can they be partially correct? If you wish to use evolution as a model for morality, what I mention here is atavism. Perhaps you could explain how something is wrong and right by definition due to atavistic moral codes, or how moral evolution somehow in fact forbids atavism from occuring so we can quit bringing it up. Right now, it stands between you an an absolute system. I await your teleology any moment to wrap this up.

Yes, it does, which is why we relativists appreciate the principle of ‘no privileged system’.

Where have you gone? To watch reality TV[AA]?

** Um, there obviously is. Even if “morality” is a finger that points to an area of empty space instead of a moon, it’s still “a finger that points to an area of empty space instead of a moon”.

The thing the word refers to is what we’re talking about. If you want a word that truly doesn’t refer to anything, even to an invalid definition, you’ll need to first think the concept that cannot be thought. It lies outside not only this universe, but all universes.

** Incorrect. That would only happen if the question of whether we WILL follow an objective morality is tautological. I believe the concept of “choice” that you’re referring to permits the possibility that a wrong thing will be chosen, does it not?

** Not at all. The problem is that the conception of morality as divorced from reality – separating ‘why’ from ‘how’ – is inherently flawed.

** A rat is presented with three doors. It goes through one and not the others. How is this choice fundamentally different from the choices you make?

** Not everyone but TVAA, technically.

** 'zilla, correct me if I’m wrong, but your background is Jewish, yes?

How do you view the widespread anti-Semitism once prevalent throughout much of Europe? What do you think of the teachings that go on in highly anti-Semitic communities?

If you tell me that you think it was bad, I’ll call you a liar for claiming that whatever most people do is obviously correct. If you tell me that you think it was good, I’ll suggest that you move to a community that is predominantly made up of Ku Klux Klan members and experimentally determine how you feel about what happens.

I strongly suspect that you’ll dislike both of those outcomes. Now you have another choice: unmake the decision you made to accept this course of reasoning and take another, or accept one of the two possibilities that remains open in this course.

Checkmate!

Ah, but saying that I perceive more emotion in Bach’s work is not subjective, but objective: either I do, and I’m telling the truth, or I don’t, and I’m lying.

Now, if I claimed that there was more emotion in Bach’s works, your response would have been appropriate. You’re still wrong, because the standards by which I reached that conclusion (manifested by the workings of my brain) exist objectively; I am forced to conclude that the workings of your brain are defective, since their output doesn’t match mine.

So does the first group consider contrapuntal melodies to be better or not? If they do, how is that compatible with accepting the contrary position as equally correct?

What’s wrong with people driving on different sides of the road?

** [sigh] Sure I have. I just haven’t been understood yet.

Now I’ve spent so much time responding to this that I don’t have enough to explain the reasons for objective morality. Fine – when I return, I’m launching straight into it.

Oh, how could I be so blind? Of course it’s obvious! So obvious, in fact, that nobody but you can see it :rolleyes:
To which, I counter with the following equally valid argument:

Um, obviously there isn’t.

Now you’re claiming that the meaning of words can be determined according to some objective reality? :eek: I never said anything about “a word that truly doesn’t refer to anything.” I’m talking about using a word in the agreed upon sense of the meaning. There are no objective truths to determine the meaning of a word – just look at a dictionary and see how many different (and often contradictory) definitions there are for any given word. You cannot just choose to use a word differently from everybody else and claim as your justification that this is what the word “really” (apart from any common usage) means!

I’m stunned. Simply stunned.

Um, the fundamental differences are obvious.

How in the world do you get a “checkmate” out of that example? I never claimed that “whatever most people do is obviously correct” in the first place. I only said that when talking about language and word choice, not morality.

And? What’s the relevance? The fact that you perceive something may be objective, but your perceptions are, by definition, subjective since they are not necessarily shared by other people. Here’s let me grab a dictionary:

Nothing, as long as they are going different directions. I assumed you would understand that from my example. If some people think that they should drive on the right (from their perspective) side, and other people think that they should drive on the left (from their perspective) side, and these two groups of people try driving on the same road at the same time, there will be a lot of dead people on the road in a very short time. However, there is no “absolute truth” to determine whether it is better or worse to drive on the left side of the road or the right side.

Barry