What’s scary is that you turn a high school physics problem into a screed on polititians and scammers, all the while mangling the physics.
I’m not going to point by point you. It has already been done in this thread several times, and the answers are clear and accurate, and they continue to show the same thing.
You are choosing to define the term “collision” in a layperson’s casual usage equivalent to “car crash” rather than the technical physics term being used as in the classroom setting, the impact of the two objects. For the problem as stated in the OP, this appears to be about the basic physics question of “collision”, i.e. the impact of two objects, not anything to do with what happens to cars in the real world.
For that classroom situation, the “collision” is over after the two objects are done impacting, regardless of what condition that leaves them. In the example in question, that means it can leave them moving at 50km/hr as a single object, ready for more “collisions” or other interactions.
In your casual use of “collision” to mean “car crash”, yes, the car crash is not over until all objects are at rest. But that is a very different situation than the OP.
You do have one valid point, the statement “detrimental” is vague. Taken by the phrasing of the OP, it is assumed the OP is looking at the textbook example, in which case the only detriment relevant is that which occurs during the collision, i.e. the actual impact of the two objects. For this textbook case, as has been shown numerous times including actual numbers and equations (thanks robby), the two collisions have the same dissipation of kinetic energy, with one situation using all the kinetic energy, and one situation only using some of it.
By the way, I will define one other term that you apparently do not understand. “Dissipation” in this situation applies to the kinetic energy that is lost during the collision. It only applies during the actual collision, not to all the kinetic energy that may be lost due to subsequent interactions between the two cars and the pavement, or the two cars and other objects.
For the case where the equivalent energy is 70.7km/h or whatever, you have to park one of the cars against a barricade/wall/chained to the ground, so that it becomes in immovable object. Then when you slam the first moving car into the second still car, all the KE from the first car is dissipated in the collision (notcrash).
But you have been continually wrong with your assertion that kinetic energy is conserved and your assertion that momentum is not conserved. You have is completely backwards.
Total Energy is always conserved. Momentum is always conserved. Kinetic Energy may or may not be conserved. In an inelastic collision, by definition KE is not conserved. Just like dropping a ball will not conserve KE.
Here are some basic physics texts explaining Conservation of Momentum and Inelastic Collisions.
This one is really neat because it has a video of two carts colliding. One has mass m and is moving, the other has mass 3m and starts at rest. It is inelastic, i.e. the two carts stick together. After the collision, guess what? They both move together. (The velocity is lower because the masses are not equal, but the principle is exactly the same.)
http://www.batesville.k12.in.us/physics/apphynet/Dynamics/Collisions/inelastic_collisions.htm
This one shows that Conservation of Momentum is precisely the tool used to be able to solve an inelastic collision.
In short, you are wrong. You interpret the question oddly, and you are wrong in your application of the physics.