I think my reading makes sense also > in cases of war, you have a 15 day grace period to use wire taps without a warrant. After the 15 days, you must get a warrant. This helps in the case of a sudden war or attack, but makes sure that it won’t go on indefinately.
I just don’t think the wording is saying that you can use wire-taps for 15 days at a time, per person, time after time, year after year. If that were the case, why specify calendar days (its not like you would only wiretap someone during the work week, but it would make since if you are making sure to create a specific time limit after the date of the declaration of war)? What happens after the 15 days? The attorney general can just authorize another 15 days? Doesn’t that defeat the purpose?
I think Bricker is reading the law wrong (did I just accuse him of that?)
This reading interjects a pause when there is none indicated. If someone said:
to acquire foreign intelligence information for a period not to exceed fifteen calendar days pause following a declaration of war by the Congress.
then I would agree with your interpetation. However, as it is written there is no comma and no pause indicated. As it is written it is one phrase and should be taken as such.
And after some reading around the web, it seems most agree.
In which case, it seems quite obvious that Bush is breaking the law, and continues to do so.
Bricker, leaving aside the questions of “foreign” and “declaration of war” if the 15 day interpretation is as above, do you agree that the law is being broken?
Bricker, you are really good at providing insight into what direction the Administrative arguments may take.
Our “ship of state” may well take on water through judicial loopholes.
When it reaches the point that legal scholars have to rely on the argument about whether or not our Congress has declared war, we are sunk.
Your technicalities are no longer about a democracy that will survive unharmed. Sometimes oridinary people see a technicality for what it is. This isn’t just a matter that is resolved entirely in the Congress or the Supreme Court.
In regards to whether or not the resolution passed after 9/11 constitutes a declaration of war here are the times when war was actually declared (minus the Mexican-American war becuase I can’t find it).
The Declaration of War against Germany in WWII:
I couldn’t find the declaration of war on Mexico during the Mexican-American war but I suspect its more of the same. In each of the resolutions it is stated in no uncertain terms that the country is in a state of war. Compare with the resolution after 9/11:
Notice that there is no language at all that suggests that Congress intends to declare war. In fact this resolution is made in accordance with the war powers act that specifically differentiates between a state of war and military action authorized by congressional resolution.
From the war powers act:
Lest you think Bush believed that the resolution constituted a declaration of war lets see what he said in his letter to congress after starting the war in Afghanistan pursuant to the War Powers Act:
So what? There is no legal significance in the President’s choice of words. And I’ve already said that while “declared war” may well be a term of art when used in the War Powers Resolution, it’s used in a more broad way in 50 USC 1811.
First - why are you so sure you are right, when some here, and many other news sources and blogs agree with my reading of the law?
Second, I still don’t think you understand - I am saying the wording of the law says that the President, through the attorney general, can get wiretaps without a warrant, until 15 days after the date war is declared. - which, to me, makes much more sense when reading the law (as mentioned above, giving the pres a window during the beginning of the war to gather quick intel before needing a warrant, or falling back on the 72 hour rule)
For someone who is so exact with reading the precise words of a sentance, you seem to be reading way more into this law than is there. Where does it say, or even imply, “15 day period” or “per target”. ??
It clearly says “…fifteen calendar days following a declaration of war by the Congress.”
Am I missing something, cause I could be completely wrong here, but you’ll have to help me and show me exactly how??
I also believe that the War Powers Resolution does not require the President to report to congress when there is a declaration of war. Do you have a different reading of Section 4?
Again, you and you alone, have decided what everything in this law means:
declaration of war doesn’t mean the same thing as the official DECLARATION OF WAR
“15 days” really means a random period of 15 days, not “fifteen calendar days following a declaration of war by the Congress.”
Now I know that you occasionally throw in your standard disclaimer of “the way the admin might argue” which is all well and good, but this is what you are arguing as well correct?
If not tell us
So, we all understand Bush and the admin may come up with all sorts of reaching random ways of reading the law, but do you agree thier interpretation is correct?
The more I look at this, the more it looks like the wiretapping actually might have (legal) justification.
From what I gather, FISA law governs foreign surveillance within US borders, and EO 12333 governs foreign surveillance abroad. So, if NSA bugged my phone in the course of my daily chats with Habib in Kandahar, they would legally need a FISA warrant. On the other hand, if they bugged Habib’s phone in Kandahar, they would be covered by EO 12333. 12333 delegates authority for establishing surveillance guidelines to the Attorney General, and it seems the AG has been intimately involved in all this.
So, giving Bush the benefit of the doubt and assuming all communications intercepts physically took place overseas, no law was broken.
notwithstanding adv : despite anything to the contrary, or in spite of
I can take this to mean, notwithstanding any pre-existing or conflicting law (not USC 50). So, then it means all the rest of USC 50 1801-1821applies, as 1811 is one small subset of it - unless all the rest, 1801 through 1821 was just verbage to pad the word count.
Let’s simplify now
Notwithstanding any other law (or regardless of any “not 50US”), the President, through the Attorney General, may authorize electronic surveillance without a court order under this subchapter to acquire foreign intelligence (that is foreign, as defined and spelled out in all the other subsets that are being studiously ignored) information for a period not to exceed fifteen calendar days (15 calendardays as in war starts on day 0 and AG authorization expires on day 15, NOT an eternal and continual reauthorization) following a declaration of war by the Congress (as in an official and fully understood/agreed we gonna kill you sucker war declaration by Congress - not some hooey presidential war against some concept or show of intent to twist arms to force some imspection).
So, in the event of a declared war, the AG can authorize for 15 calendar days. He still has to comply with the rest of USC50. He and the president can not keep going forever. Reauthorizing every 45 days is 30 days past the time limit, and is not “allowed”. The wording is clear. After 15 calendar days, the surveillance must stop, or all the previous subsets say warrant WILL be requested…
ALL of USC 50 applies. In cherry picking, we are throwing out all the rest of USC 50. It doesn’t work that way.
I am replying late because my cable modem was down all afternoon.
I, ah, fail to see any mention of the wiretapping happening overseas. It seems to involve wiretapping of americans, and monitoring of their internet usage, but no mention of the location of the wiretapping is listed anywhere I can find. Except, of course, for the location of the NSA.
Please tell me Bricker, why is it ok for the President to twist the law into a pretzel to fit his agenda, but when a judge does it he is an evil “activist” judge.
Please tell ME where I said it was OK for Bush to have done this?
I never have, In fact, I’ve repeatedly said it’s poor public policy, it’s unwise, it’s not a good idea.
BUT IT’S NOT CRIMINAL.
Now an activist judge is also an example of poor public policy, unwise, not good idea. But also not criminal. And, indeed, you may search my 12,000+ posts diligently without finding even one post in which I suggested charging activist judges with a crime or putting them in prison.