As one “researcher” put it? Nice spin, Smashy, you have a future in the Pubbie party.
The SCOTUS would seem to disagree:
So, it would seem the courts have indeed applied the General Welfare clause in constitutional matters making it not just a bit of flowery rhetoric but rather an actual part of the law of the land.
(covered in subsequent post)
sigh
You’re right and Mr Smashy is wrong about the location and effect of the general welfare clause. He thought you were referring to the preamble, but your were referring to Art I, Sec 8.
But you’re wrong about the reach of the clause.
Well…none of this is settled because there is no case (that I am aware of) which is an analogue to what we are discussing. Insofar as that is the case no side can say it is “settled” one way or the other.
What they can do is look to how the courts have acted in the past on issues that bear on the same parts of the constitution as well as the inclinations of the justices. When these things are looked at it would seem to support the notion that the courts historically have sided with congress in these matters. For them to reverse at this point would upend decades of precedent (and the courts dig precedent).
You would think, then, that my analysis would be accorded great deference on this one, yes? 
Granted my cite is from a Wiki article but there are cites in there to several cases and it would seem the courts have granted more expansive rather than more restrictive powers to congress on this.
Is the article in error making that assertion?
The courts have been expansive with Congress’ indirect powers to coerce for the general welfare, yes, the classic case being withholding highway funds to force states to comply with speed limits and drinking ages. But there’s a run of cases, starting with Steward Machine Co. v. Davis, that contain language limiting Congress’s direct use of the general welfare to "subject matter to activities fairly within the scope of national policy and power.’’ Buckley v. Valeo, Fullilove v. Klutznick, Pennhurst State School & Hospital v. Halderman.
I think a more pragmatic answer is that the AG wants to run for Governor, and he figures that a lawsuit against HRC would fire up the base, and more easily secure his nomination.
IANAL but it would seem to me health care can easily be “fairly within the scope of national policy and power.”
Maybe. But that’s a matter of first impression - so far as I can tell, no court has squarely held this. Yet.
Bricker, you’ve been remarkably even handed in this thread. Kudos.
The Attorney General’s job is not to enforce the law according to the will of the people. It’s to enforce the law. The people, such as they are, accepted his reading of constitutional law when they elected him* as much as they accepted their Senators’ views on healthcare reform when they elected them.
You could debate ad infinitum whether this election or that election is the one we should be looking at when determining the will of the people.
Informal polling is even less meaningful than elections in this case. Our system of government doesn’t allow for referenda (or at least doesn’t provide for them).
*assuming the ND AG is elected. If not, substitute the governor who appointed him.
ETA: I am a little curious about whether the unfunded portion of the mandate - ie., the part where the states have to pony up additional dough - will be upheld.
[quote=“Whack-a-Mole, post:25, topic:533465”]
Well…none of this is settled because there is no case (that I am aware of) which is an analogue to what we are discussing. Insofar as that is the case no side can say it is “settled” one way or the other.
QUOTE]
I agree… that’s why I thought the Institute’s document isn’t serious… from page 6: "Thus, absent any special states’ rights concerns under the 10th Amendment (discussed below), ***it is clear and well-settled ***that Congress has the power to mandate the purchase of health insurance. " (bolding and ital mine)
I agree with your first setence, and disagree with your second. Again, from US v Lopez, 1995:
This is as close as we get wrt using the Commerce Clause to justify extraconstitutional laws, and the Supremes struck it down. Despite the fact that nobody (seriously) would argue that it’s not a good idea to ban guns in schools, which was what the case was about.
The Preamble? What about Article 1, Section 8:
yeah, it was already pointed out earlier, I thought he referred to a different instance.
No matter, the other stuff still stands.
Shhh, adults talking here.
I agree using the Commerce Clause to restrict guns in schools is quite a contortion.
It is not a contortion to suggest congress has the power to tax.
I always am. 
Only in the sense that you’re not an amputee. 
I grew up in Western ND. Spent the first 21 years of my life there.
The OP does not confuse me in the slightest. The state has different philosophies battling for control. I will also contend that ND is not as conservative as its reputation. Yes, many people are very conservative…but a large minority are not.
If the state plus South Dakota would have been divided as it SHOULD have been ( East and West Dakota), you would see much less paradox 