The principle of Parsimony (I’ll just call it “Parsimony” from now on) says that nothing can exist according to an axiom set unless its existence is required for that axiom set to be consistent.
The principle of Permission ("Permission) says that anything can exist according to an axiom set as long as its existence is consistent with the axioms in that set.
The principle of Transferability says that identically worded axioms in different axiom sets are consistent with all of the same things.
Ch4rl3s adheres to Parsimony, and does not believe Transferability to be true. (I interpret his latest post as essentially denying the premise from my post “S1 and S2 are identical to SX1 and SX2”. He seems to be saying there is a distinction between them, even though they are identically worded–and that distinction rests on their being parts of different axiom sets.)
I think it’s true that if Parsimony is true, then Transferability must be false. My argument against Parsimony above implicitly relied on Transferability, and Ch4rl3s’s response basically defended Parsimony on the basis of a denial of Transferability.
Now it seems to me that there are two different relevant questions to ask. First, do actual mathematicians and logicians follow Parsimony, or rather Permission and Transferability? Second, can some kind of proof theory actually work (i.e. regardless of what actual mathematicians and logicians actually do) if Transferability is false?
As to the first question, I hope someone with this kind of thing ready to hand can provide an example or two of an uncontroversial and relatively simple demonstration in the literature that makes use of Transferability and Permission.
As to the second question, I’m still thinking about what such a system would amount to. It would mean that you can’t assume that two consistent axiom sets which share certain identically worded axioms are thereby consistent with any other identically worded statements. I haven’t had enough spare time since reading Ch4rl3s’s post to figure out if there could be a sensible system of logic that works this way.
As to the system actually used by practicing mathematicians and logicians, it is surely one that adheres both to Permission and Transferability, but as I indicated above, I don’t have ready to hand a simple and uncontroversial demonstration from the literature that clearly uses both of these principles. I’m hoping someone else in the thread can supply something.
ETA: The Fano Axioms were an unfortunate example, it turns out, because they require the existence of further objects than those specified in the axioms. What is needed is an example of an axiom set which allows the existence of further objects without requiring them–and which mathematicians and logicians typically do model in a way that involves the existence of these further objects. And now that I’ve edited to add this paragraph, I’m thinking just a little bit of easy thought should let me come up with a simple example, but it’s too early in the morning and I haven’t had my coffee so I’m leaving it for later.
This largely contentless post has been brought to you by Frylock