Which ignores the fact, as I’ve pointed out, that the City was a hair’s breadth from winning. Four Supreme Court justices voted to uphold the trial court’s decision. Your assertion that it was “not a complex case” is foolish in light of these facts. :smack:
Which ignores the fact that the judge in question could have swayed the vote. I can’t help it if there are already 4 jackasses on the bench who think it’s OK to discriminate based on race.
Is this a trick question? Do you think my position on discrimination would change?
Do you not see the irony of a minority firefighter losing a promotion to another minority because of a quota system? What the city did was wrong and it should not have taken the Supreme Court to point this out.
I am pretty sure I was saying the same thing about quotas. SCOTUS never quite went that far but throwing away test results merely because no blacks made the cut is effectively a quota.
I was also saying that a 5-4 decision pretty much means that Sotomayer’s position on the firefighter case was basically meaningless.
While there is no question about your feeling on the matter, your understanding of the law on the matter is more questionable. Your implied assertion that the law on the matter was an open and shut case is wrong as shown by the fact that the case came a hair’s breadth from going the other way.
It is really starting to sound like you are asking for incontrovertible proof rather than evidence. I don’t know for a fact that there is an actual gap in IQ between blacks and whites but you seem to be pretty certain that there isn’t. Objective tests tell us that there is a significant gap. There may be societal factors that may contribute to that gap but frankly it sounds like a bunch of pretty subtle factor to be creating more than a standard deviation gap in test scores.
Nor were the dyslexia case and the reverse-discrimination case the only times Mr. Ricci haled his employer into court.
As the very excellent Dahlia Lithwick observes (quote is from the linked article):
No, I’m not looking for incontrovertible proof. I’m just looking for some evidence that isn’t based on assumptions that are riddled with gaping holes.
In epidemiology, the correct answer is rarely just genetics. We could be talking about IQ, mental illness, obesity, alcoholism, etc, and it’s always the same: environmental theories nearly always takes center stage over genetic ones when we’re comparing two ethic populations that differ culturally and socioeconomically. There seems to be a misconception that this only applies to intelligence, but read some papers and you’ll see that it doesn’t. Although genetics are always a possible explanation for any source of disparities, solely using a process of elimination to declare genetics as the main source (which is the process you’re advocating) requires, you know, actually eliminating things. Particularly, wrt to IQ, this means eliminating things that we know are associated with mental deficits and low test scores, such as adverse prenatal health conditions and social stigmatization.
If you’re not willing to accept these as environmental explanations for differences in IQ, even in the face of 1) data that shows these things depress test scores and 2) it’s common knowledge that these variables differ across racial groups, then I don’t know why anyone should accept theories that genes are the heart of the difference, especially when these theories are based on more conjecture than evidence.