When the poster says: “the wholly unjustified and despicable war on the erstwhile Confederate states that in 1861 wanted no more than to go their own way peaceably (but when confronted with Federal violence and invasion, were willing themselves to fight!)” and "especially after the misnamed “Civil War” (A term, though much less concise, might be, “War of Federal Aggression to Subjugate the Confederacy”), and talks of armed revolt against the government, it’s more than fair to completely write them off as a complete waste of time and space.
And this concept is detailed repeatedly in the Federalist Papers. Nobody wants to read them any more, but if you want insight into the thought process behind the Constitution, it’s laid out right there for all to see.
I was dismissive precisely * because* I gave that post the consideration it deserved. It’s a shit post, consisting of shit words conveying shit thoughts by a shitty person who will not return after shitting it on the floor.
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This train of thought is just right-wing silliness.
Being subject to authority is the natural state of primates, from the common ancestor of Old- and New-World Monkeys, all the way to the present. If God gave man certain inalienable rights, he forgot to tell 99% of the humans who ever lived.
Even in America, for many decades Blacks did not have the right of speech, right of assembly, right of gun ownership, etc. — they didn’t even have 3/5’ths of such a right.
Et cetera et cetera.
There is no useful wisdom in OP’s “insight.” Anyone who buys into this utter bullshit is in the same ilk as Freemen on the Land.
I’d say that the 4th Amendment’s implied protections for personal privacy, as extended to support medical choices, might be extended to necromancy. The wrinkle is that you can’t use any consideration of the privacy of the deceased, since they no longer have rights in law.
You need to take some history classes. The OP is absolutely right. Just because in the real world might makes right it doesn’t mean that the US Constitution is not based on the concept of natural rights.
We already knew you are a doltish right-winger. The fact that you think “history books” will shed light on my correct comments or OP’s confusion just shows the extent of your own confusion.
So, how do you feel about “Freemen on the Land,” octopus?
ETA: Oh, BTW: Would I be correct that in your humble opinion, abortion, not mentioned in the Constitution, is not a fundamental right?
Not at the expense of denying fundamental rights to the indisputable human being involved.
Anyway, the thread-bumper made me chuckle, ignoring as he did the attack on Fort Sumter. Had the confederacy won (or at least survived), I don’t doubt that attack would be celebrated as the glorious first battle.
Since they lost, it’s instead “Fort Sumter? What’s a Fort Sumter? Never heard of it.”
How about the right to a gun? The right to trial by jury? The right for the rich to subvert democracy?
I’m trying to understand how people like you think. Note that 230-year old opinions are of little relevance here: I just wonder whether the concept of “natural rights” has some real basis in logic, science, general history or religion … or is just mindless right-wing prattle.
I agree with the concept that rights are not granted by the Constitution, that they are instead inalienable, natural rights. But with this being the case, wouldn’t that also mean that they apply to those who are not citizens? I would think so. Just something for the torture advocates to consider.
I have a question for those who say that rights are not granted by the Constitution, but merely recognised.
How do you handle amendments?
The right to own slaves was recognised and protected by the Constitution. Does that mean that the right to own slaves is a natural law right? If not, then doesn’t that mean that up until the 13th amendment, the Constitution granted a right that wasn’t an example of natural law? Or, does that mean that the 13th Amendment is contrary to natural law?
And what about suffrage rights? Black people, women, and those under 21 could not vote under the Constitution as originally enacted; in fact, Dred Scott held that states could not give rights to black people, because they were inherently not equal to white people. So does that mean that it is a principle of natural law that only white men, aged 21 and over, have a right to vote? Or was the Constitution flawed and subsequent amendments now recognise the right of black people, women, and people between 18 and 21 to vote, so that is a natural law right? Or, are those amendments contrary to natural law?