# Traffic law question

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/traffic-law-question/436194>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [February 4, 2008, 7:55am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/traffic-law-question/436194 "2008-02-04T07:55:21Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 2

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**Author:** ![Jinx](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/c6cbf5/32.png) [@Jinx](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Jinx)\
**Post date:** [February 5, 2008, 11:36pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/traffic-law-question/436194/21 "2008-02-05T23:36:16Z")

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[QUOTE=Santo Rugger]  
There is no such thing as having the right of way. The law only describes who must yield right of way…  
[/QUOTE]

Uh, that’s the same thing, isn’t it? If one must yield, then by default, the other HAS the right of way. Otherwise, I believe they call it a smash 'em up derby!

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