Voter ID Laws: Necessary to combat rampant fraud or subtle subjugation of the Democratic demographic

You really think they’d admit it in public? :smiley:

Surely you know how to connect a dot, don’t you?

Isn’t that a question for the elected officials of Pennsylvania?

I’ll tell you how I’d answer it, if I were one.

I’d say that for years, the problem never really arose, because margins of votes were so high that it was obvious no critical contests were in doubt. Sure, the local dogcatcher might have come down to six votes, or even a US Congress seat here and there, but we didn’t have a combination of a razor-tight election and control of the House – in other words, even if one seat went D or R, the House (or Senate) as a whole was unaffected).

In 2000, that changed. The rules didn’t change, mind you, but our collective noses were rubbed in the fact that it was possible for the Presidency to hinge on a single state’s outcome AND to have that single state’s results be so close as to be a statistical tie. Suddenly, the spectre of 500-ish votes determining a state’s electoral votes happened, and that state simultaneously being the single key state for the entire election.

So since that time, our priorities have shifted. Of course school spending is important. But in Pennsylvania, we spent $26,000 million dollars for elementary and secondary education in the state (PDF, page xv, Table 1). You’re talking about one half of one thousandth of that amount, used to guarantee that the state can more solidly guarantee that our citizens can vote and count on the integrity of the system that counts those votes.

Hm. I always thought it was against the Amish religion to vote, or do military service, and a lot of other things.

Bricker,
You yourself state that the laws won’t stop existing voter fraud. If that’s true then all the stuff about margins and statistical ties isn’t really relevant other than it’s supposed effect on voter confidence.

Is voter confidence really affected by this one way or the other? If it is, does that in turn affect voter behavior? Your’e assuming that it does. That may not be a safe assumption.

John_Stamos’_Left_Ear posted a link to a Harvard Law Review study that concludes that voter ID laws appear to have no effect on voter confidence.
http://projects.iq.harvard.edu/cces/files/Ansolabehere_Persily-_Vote_Fraud_in_the_Eye_of_the_Beholder.pdf

From the conclusion:

Is this conclusion correct? I have no idea and I don’t at the moment have time to read the whole study. But I believe that it does show that the assumption that ID laws increase voter confidence is not necessarily correct.

I thought so too. I am also surprised that pacifists would vote for Republicans. Obviously we were both mistaken.

What the hell do you call the Supreme Court hijacking an election if not “changing the rules”? And why do you fail to address that event’s effect on the problem you purport to decry, public confidence in the process? :dubious:

Elections are not “statistical”. There is one event, and one total vote for each candidate.

You left out a “not”. The changes you demand would make it harder, not easier, for citizens to vote. And you *know *that, of course. Why not say so? Or do you have some basis for your calmly presented, but nevertheless counterfactual, claim that adding restrictions actually improves guarantees of voting rights?

Never mind, we all know, and you do too.

Under ordinary circumstances, I have agreed that voter fraud is not likely to be a statistically relevant concern. When the margin of victory is 50,000 votes, we’re not worried that 400 votes might have been illegally cast.

But when the margin of victory is 500 votes, and there is a possibility that more than 250 of them were illegal, the problem changes dramatically. In fact, even if 100 of them were illegal, the problem changes dramatically.

THIS is where voter confidence becomes key.

I don’t believe so. Quoting from the link:

I suggest that the questions answered miss the mark. The real question would be: if voter ID is universal, and understood as a strict requirement in the jurisdiction, would voters still perceive fraud in equal strength?

I think you’re really reaching here. If I’m forced to show ID then I’m going to assume that everyone is being forced to show ID.

Whether that assumption is correct or not is irrelevant. We’re discussing what is in the voter’s mind.

As a follow-up, I completely reject this reasoning from the study:

This misunderstands the value of photo ID. When a voter knows he is not REQUIRED to produce photo ID, he knows the ID requirements are weak or useless --even if he was personally asked for and able to provide a photo ID.

I remember 2000. I remember the uncertainty over the election results in Florida, and I don’t remember anything about it being due to voter fraud. It was all about hanging chads, and absentee ballot deadlines, and recounts in specific districts. If every vote in Florida was cast by the individual who was entitled to do so (and I haven’t got any reason to think they weren’t), it wouldn’t have changed a thing. If you really want to improve confidence in elections, develop a foolproof, tamper-proof means of voting and calculating the results.

The solution you propose has nothing to do with the problem you want to solve.

This has almost certainly been asked before but I am feeling lazy this morning so here goes.

In some other countries, especially those who are new to actually voting for a candidate (as opposed to elections that only have one person per seat on the ballot), once a voter has cast her vote, that person’s hand is marked in some manner. Usually it is a permanent dye applied to the forefinger. This mark is looked for by the election officials to disallow the voter from voting more than once.

This seems like a very easy solution and I imagine that there is a very good reason why it is not implemented here, but for the life of me, I can’t figure out what that reason is.

Might someone help me with my ignorance?

I don’t have a problem, in principle, with voter ID laws, and I don’t think they are invariably thinly veiled Republican attempts at disenfranchisement. However, they have little or no effect on actual fraud. If they were genuinely interested in preventing fraud, they’d be fixing the absentee ballot system, where 99% of actual fraud occurs.

Bricker, I still think you’re reaching. While this study does not definitively prove that voter ID laws have no effect on confidence, it certainly calls that assumption into question. So the benefit of the doubt is on you to prove that it does have an effect.

But let’s ignore that and look at another part of my quote from that document.

Beliefs in the frequency of fraud (which I believe is equivalent to confidence) have little or no effect on electoral participation. So, even if ID laws do increase confidence, it’s meaningless because the level of confidence has little or no effect on voter turnout.

So, we have laws that do not provably prevent fraud; do not provably increase turnout, do provably disenfranchise voters (of both parties) and provably cost money (hey, a million here and a million there and soon we’re talking real money!).

Sorry, but that doesn’t make sense to me.

Over the years, the laws on who is eligible to vote have changed. As far as I can recall, the changes have always been to allow greater participation. I would say the intent of an election is to measure the will of the people in choosing who will govern them. It’s not a perfect measure, but I hope it has gotten better over the years.

If the effort to stop 100 fraudulent votes prevents 1,000 people from voting who otherwise would have, are we closer to the ideal or further away?

Thank you. You’ve said it better than all of my cites and arguments could have.

And I’ll add: In reference to the comments about “confidence”; what is the upper limit on the number of people it’s worth disenfranchising in order to give the rest of us a warm fuzzy feeling about our elections?

Do you have a cite for that? There just are so few situations where someone actually goes back and checks ballots, I was wondering if anyone had pinpointed absentee as the source of problems.

I think that is one of the issues with this debate - we don’t spend the money to go back and dig through the ballots that often. I have linked before to the information on the Dornan-Sanchez race where the House of Representatives did an investigation:

Decently footnoted wiki link:

The issue there seems to be the registrations themselves, rather than the overlying votes. Voter ID laws address the latter.

I agree on that one, I was still wondering if there had been any other large scale reviews of all ballots in an area to see how much of a problem there really is.

Absentee is certainly a risk point. I just mailed in my ballot for California, and nobody is checking my ID with it. The state of CA just sends it to my house, along with my wife’s. At one point I was getting the ballot of a former tenant as well.

Just have voters dip a finger in ink, already. Why is this being made so complicated?

It isn’t just a question of whether or not they’ve already voted. It’s a question of whether or not they’re even eligible to vote in the first place. And it’s also a question of whether or not they’re eligible to vote in that precinct.