Was Shakespeare gay?

How do you know that Will was writing as himself? Just because a poem is in the first person, that doesn’t mean it’s the poet speaking. Do you really think a raven appeared in Edgar Alan Poe’s study saying “nevermore” because the poem is a first-person account of the incident?

Further, you were able to disprove my case because you knew outside information about Hammerstein. From the lyrics alone, the case can be made that Hammerstein was gay, just like you can make the case that Shakespeare is gay from his poems alone. But neither proves anything. You need more than just the words.

But the Hammeristein lyrics are not alone; they’re excerpted from the play South Pacific. Nellei forbush is a character, a Navy nurse in the Pacific theater during WWII. Only a simpleton (or a Ph.D. member of the MLA; they’re hard to distinguish) would think that Hammerstein was speaking for himself.

In *The Sonnets, however, the author uses the words “I” and “the poet”; it’s not readily apparent if he’s addressing a real young man or not.

Read the rest of my previous post.

Poems of homosexual love or mere literary license? Who knows? Biased as I am, I like to think that Will was addressing a real young man, perhaps a lad playing one of the female leads just a little too well.