What if the American colonies had always been represented in the British Parliament?

It’s just not alternate-history without airships.

Eh? Oh, it’s just another word for the same thing.

[hunkers down, covers head, awaits bombardment of cabers]

N.B.: None of that demonstrated the superiority of industrial capitalism, or even of merchant capitalism. Only a different paradigm for agriculture – and of course if you have an agrarian society, plenty of land is better than little.

But the agrarian focus would effect all of the economy. Industry or finance don’t just happen in a single jump; they’re ongoing series of small steps. But in a society where wealth is measured by land ownership, you’re going to be seeing people starting out in industry or finance and then cashing it in when they reach a certain level so they can buy a country estate and live the way a wealthy person is supposed to live. Your economic growth will constantly be starting and stopping instead of moving on to higher levels.

Bumped.

Game theory and pre-1776 American representation in the British Parliament: https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/wonk/wp/2016/10/20/what-we-can-learn-from-one-of-the-biggest-mysteries-and-misunderstandings-of-the-american-revolution/?postshare=6471477139424467&tid=ss_mail

In The March to Folly, Barbara Tuchman argues the American revolt was clear, at the time, to everyone in a decision making capacity. Why they felt they could not change course is the inteteresting bit. The eventualities of an alternate timeline are really just ‘fan fiction’.

Well, there’s the Earl De La Warr (pronounced Delaware), still a peerage in the UK…and the extinct Irish baronage of Baltimore. Although those are peerages which had places in the US named after them.

I think, without the US, the French Revolution would not have happened, and under Louis XVI a more limited French monarchy would have arisen, but like Britain France would have been dominated by the rich nobility and jealous of their power.

Without the example of the American or French Revolutions, I suspect the British nobility would a) have scoffed at the threat of revolution overturning them and of the undertrodden classes being able to govern. Therefore the British Parliament would not have reformed in the 1830s as it did. Possibly reform would have been much later, if at all, much more bitterly contested, and more limited.

As consequence, I wonder if a revolution in Britain would have eventually triggered, and a republic established at some point. Britain’s constitution has changed through gradualism, and without that pressure valve for discontent, perhaps things would have eventually boiled over like in France or Russia…