Sorry, but I don’t get enjoyment from open antagonism.
Is “sexism” then pretty much the same as “misogyny”, or are there differences?
Holy crap, I don’t believe you’re even asking this question in all honesty. Without even answering for any of your posts, your citations proving my point, never providing your own definition of sexism or answering any of the questions that have been directly posed at you.
No, sexism and misogyny are different. Remember when you said that yourself?
Try harder.
Then the question becomes “What is the difference(if any) between sexism and insitutionalized sexism?”
Hahahahaha…ok. This has been fun Czarcasm. Enjoy the rest of your fact-finding mission.
Neither one happened.
Still not answering any of those questions, I see. Or admitting that your own prestigious cite actually supports my point. Hm.
Why does that become the question from what I posted? What I posted is support for the position that one of the characteristics of sexism is that it is institutionalised.
So now I don’t know what your question is. Is it:
- What is the difference between the colloquial/broad/dictionary definition and the academic definition?
or
- What is the difference between gender discrimination and sexism?
Or something else?
The questions were answered, as far as I could tell.
The former, I think…although I still believe, through what I’ve read so far, there isn’t just one “academic” definition out there.
Is the point that, if we are not talking about institutionalized sexism, we aren’t really talking about sexism at all?
There is no doubt that she is using the term in a way that differs from the usual.
The question is whether her use of the term has anything that can be described as scientific consensus weight behind it, of the sort that is implied by the use of a phrase such as 'the following is the sociological definition … '.
Your points (1) and (2), for example, are premised on the notion that when we speak of “institutional”, it too has some specialized meaning - it means society or culture as a whole (and only that), rather than some subset of society or culture - such as a school [or for that matter, a message board].
This isn’t the “normal” definition of “institutional”, either. Usually, when academics, lawyers (or sociologists) speak of “institutional”, it is more specific - for example, “there is institutional bias present as evidenced by the following factors …”. If I understand her point (and those who reason as she does) correctly, it is literally impossible for a particular institution to be sexist against men (or racist against Whites for that matter) because the ‘gradient’ in society as a whole is sexist and racist against women and non-Whites.
This would not fly in other settings. One could not plausibly argue that a particular institution (say, the board of directors of a university) literally cannot be biased agianst a famous academic, because in society as a whole that academic is famous. All such judgments are normally situational. And while we would all agree that in most real-world situations women are the victims of sexist discrimination, it is not invariably the case.
Getting back to Marilyn Frye, I have no doubt that she is an influential academic and feminist, but this is nonetheless her own definition which she claims, at least in the piece you posted, to have come to on her own revelation, having personally discarded her previous definition as inadequate. This is not evidence that a single “sociological definition” is used “throughout academia”, rather the reverse. If there is a single academic definition, so far, no-one - including her - has said so.
Moreover, it given it is contrary to the more commonplace expansive definition, and it is based on a bunch of assumptions very few people would agree were true, so I think the latter is to be preferred. Her proposed definition looks very much like the fallacy of special pleading.
You mean like perhaps, the Blackwell Encyclopedia of Sociology, from which the following definitions are derived:
I hear that is a very prestigious citation.
See post #269.
See post #247.
Seems a perfectly acceptable definition.
Note the ways in which it differs from the one I was discussing, as typified by gracer’s two points.
The issue is that ladyfoxfyre seems to be unable to grasp that there is a “colloquial/broad/dictionary definition”.
In her world, the term “sexism” only has one definition and the definition MOST people are aware of and use is simply non-existent.
It’s not that I’m unfamiliar with what’s being proposed as the definition, I just have never understood it to be applicable to men. Your definition stops at “discrimination based on gender” and that isn’t how I have understood it. The definition you’re using is too broad.
I was asked to substantiate my definition with citations. Which I did. To turn it around and pretend like I’m the one who wasn’t aware of a “different” definition is funny.
Too broad for what?
It is clearly one of two valid definitions that can be used correctly depending on the context.
I have no desire to argue with you any longer on the matter. I’ve been doing it for 7 pages now. I disagree that sexism is simply gender discrimination. I have found plenty of citations to support that definition, I didn’t pull it out of my ass, and it’s well documented.
That is an irrational response to the facts.
There are clearly multiple definitions. Period.
Oh well you said “period” so you must be right.