What's the legal difference between a privilege and a right?

Saying it loud doesn’t make it true. A sixteen year-old can be a citizen, but doesn’t have the vote, for example. The state legislatures have set up classes of citizens who have the vote, typically any legal resident over 18, though some also require no felony convictions and residency in the state for some minimal length of time, plus they can require registration procedures (though they’re forbidden from blocking a voter because of an unpaid poll tax). The constitution bans certain types of exclusion, but nowhere does it say that all citizens can vote.

A summary of my previous posts:

  1. Hohfeld defines a right as a legal relationship where a party has a claim to X and another party has a duty to give X. He also points out that usage of the term is very sloppy. Much of his theory is based on contractual rights.
  2. Supreme Court early twentieth century: If it is a right, it can’t be taken away by the state (or federal government) without due process; if it is a privilege, the state (or federal government) can refuse, modify, or terminate it without due process.
  3. Holmes: Right/Privilege is a legal conclusion. If the court decides that you were owed due process, then it was a right; if the court decides you the state could take it away arbitrarily, then it was a privilege. In other words, rights are either predictions about (in the case of rights that have not yet been established) or descriptions of (in the case of rights already enforced) behavior of courts. There is no substantive content to the concepts. They are transcendental nonsense. *And see, * Felix S. Cohen, Transcendental Nonsense and the Functional
    Approach, 35 Colum. L. Rev. 809 (1935).
  4. Modern Supreme Court:
  1. Scalia: nuh-uh

More on Hohfeld:

  1. Apparently, he died in 1918, so he wasn’t writing about rights in 1919, but one of his works was published in 1919.

  2. He claimed that legal relationships between individuals could be broken down into eight terms. The terms could then be paired as correlates: Right and duty, privilege and and exposure, power and liability, immunity and disability. If I have a right to Y against X, then X has a duty to give me Y. If I have a privilege to Y against X, then X has an exposure to me doing Y. If I have an power to alter privilege Y with respect to X, then X is liable to my altering privilege Y. And if I have an immunity from X changing privilege Y, then X is under a disability from altering privilege Y with respect to me.

Hohfeld’s right and privilege, then, are opposites. If I have a privilege to do Y with respect to X, then X has no right that I not do Y. And if X has a right to Y with respect to me, then I have a duty to give Y to X.

http://www.ipfw.edu/phil/faculty/Butler/h.r.hohfeld.PDF

Read my entire post, please, before making such comments. The right to vote is innate in citizenship. Citizenship is not fully vested until a person is of legal age. I made that point of legal age quite clearly in my first post in this thread:

If some people around here would learn the difference between due process and legislation, I wouldn’t feel the need to shout.

Jumping in on one post to make a snippy comment doesn’t make you right, either.

  1. ;j How responsive is this argument to the OP?
  2. For those who are interested, one of my old professors has developed a modal logic game based on Hohfeld’s work.

http://cgi2.www.law.umich.edu/_FacultyBioPage/facultybiopagenew.asp?ID=107
http://www.murdoch.edu.au/elaw/issues/v5n3/allen53.txt
http://thinkers.law.umich.edu/files/law.htm

Enjoy!

Consider the Florida election fiasco of 2000 (gay marriage and the 2000 election - is this thread heading for the Pit or what?). The Florida Board of Elections initiated a program of ensuring that ex-felons were not allowed to vote. As part of this program they put out lists of ex-felons. It was subsequently found that some people, who were not ex-felons and had no legal barrier to voting, were not allowed to vote because they had the same name as people on the list. There was no due process, no requirement for proof that the person couldn’t legally vote - it was just “if your name’s on the list, stay home”. If voting was a right, there is no way this would have stood up in court.

First, driving is a privelege. If I said it backwards before, my apologies.

Second, an individual’s rights may be abridged with cause and due process. It is the revokation of the rights of the population that is prohibited and would probably lead to insurrection.

I am of firm opinion that the felon list tactic in Florida was illegal on its face. The state election board was within its duties to remove felons from the rolls. Due process demanded it. Removing false positive matches was not within its duties and was wrong. Creating an intentionally obfuscated process to reinstate disenfranchised voters was just sickening. These lists were also not applied in this arbitrary fashion. Only certain counties got the blanket disenfranchising treatment, counties with heavy black populations. This smacks of all the things white segregationists have done since Reconstruction: poll taxes, literacy tests, grandfather clauses, and the like.

In other words, voters were denied the right to vote without due process. I was taught that this is unconstitutional.

Have we rewritten federal law in this respect? Gfactor keeps making posts that fly in the face of what I was taught by an ACLU lawyer when I was a teen and asked the question in the OP at a little seminar one of my high school teachers had arranged (the lawyer was Michael Salem, the plaintiff’s attorney in the Bell v. Little Axe school prayer case which was still in appeal at the time). Have the courts destroyed that disntinction now? How long until breathing becomes a privilege?

I feel it’s my right to move this one to Great Debates. And I feel privileged to do so.

samclem GQ moderator.

That’s the narrowest possible definition of citizenship, and doesn’t match the 14th amendment, which reads in part:

There’s nothing in there about it not counting until a person if the age of majority. In fact, the age of majority isn’t specified anywhere in the constitution except in saying that for voting purposes, 18 is the maximum. A state could easily extend the vote to 16 year-olds (and this wouldn’t mean 16 year-olds in other states were being denied their right to vote) if it wanted, and other non-18 age-defined legal barriers not related to voting are common, i.e. the legal purchase of alcohol.

You never have a need to “shout” in this forum. I believe there’s a presumption that the membership will respond to well-presented facts over loudly-presented facts.

No, my supporting facts make me right (or to be more accurate: accurate). Although some amendments make reference to the “right to vote” (in saying that such a right cannot be abridged on account of race, sex, etc…) exactly who can vote is the province of the individual state legislatures who can deny a citizen’s vote at will except where limited by the constitution. I don’t see anyone arguing that a convicted felon loses his citizenship (assuming he was a citizen before conviction) yet he can lose his vote. If voting is to be considered a right, then it’s not quite as strongly protected as, say, freedom of expression, which cannot be abridged by a state legislature.

And had my entire original response been simply “saying it loud doesn’t make it true” and nothing else, it could be reasonably called “snippy”. I de-snipped it, though, by following it up with supporting argument. Fact is, the use of “look at me! look at me!” oversized fonts does not, I’ve observed, play well with this crowd and your argument is flawed anyway.

sewalk, have you read the cases that I cited? I think they pretty much tell the story. The Supreme Court has jettisoned (or mostly jettisoned) the right/privilege distinction in favor of a balancing test based on property interests, which some would argue requires procedural due process for more types of claims than the previous standard.

http://www.cbsnews.com/htdocs/supreme_court_interactive/cases_goldberg.html

http://www.naho.org/NL-6-99.htm
BTW, when I studied for the bar exam, they told us that on the Constitutional Law questions on the Multistate Bar Exam, an answer that invoked the right/privilege distinction was always a surefire loser.

Responding directly to the OP, which was:

There is no meaningful distinction between rights and privileges in this context. At least not one that is recognized by the United States Supreme Court. This is the wrong kind of case.

When the issue is the state’s police power, the first issue is whether the state action implicates a fundamental right or discriminates against a suspect class. If it does then it is subject to stict scrutiny, if not, it is subject to the rational basis test. In this kind of case, the court has never concluded that a statute was appropriate because it only affected a privilege instead of a right. The right-privilege cases mostly dealt with termination or denial of rights without *procedural * due process, and as I have pointed out, even that distinction no longer applies.

Here are some passages from some of the cases on point. None of them talk about the rights-privilges distinction.

The granddaddy of them all: Lochner

Griswold

Harlan concurring in Griswold:

Loving

. . . .

. . . .

. . . .

Roe

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=410&invol=113

Roe (Rehnquist dissent)

Bowers

. . . .

Bowers dissent:

Romer:

. . . .

Lawrence:

. . . .

. . . .

. . . .

Lawrence dissent

. . . .

Wrong!!! Marriage is a right under the First Amendment. A privilege is a statutory rule which a government’s legislature can revoke. Natural rights can never be revoked by governmental fictions…

troy33, Welcome to the Straight Dope.
I’m closing this zombie as the landscape has changed significantly since the thread’s beginning. A new thread is welcome if desired.

[/moderating]