Who is and who isn't a "peasant"?

I think I’ve heard the word applied to the fellahs of Egypt.

Israelis use the word “Fallah” much in the same way that you’d use the word “Peasant”.

I believe England did have a feudal system, meaning lords and serfs bound to the lord and land who handed over part of what they produced to the lord. This system evolved into something else earlier in England than in, say, Russia, but I believe it is incorrect to say England never had a lord/peasant relationship that resembled serfdom.
Marx on peasants is somewhat more complicated. Considering peasants in France, who by the 19th century were not in a feudal relationship with lords anymore but were still called peasants, he suggested that their literal isolation–separated physically from each other as small landowners–meant it was difficult, perhaps impossible, for them to work together to redress their grievances. Thus his comment that peasants were like potatoes in a sack: potatoes may be lumped together, but each potato remains distinct.This did tend to mean, in his view, their political and social ideas would not be as advanced as that of urban workers. In this he was opposed by the anarchist Bakunin. Near the end of his life, Marx argued that the Russian peasants could well become socialists and play a significant role in revolutionary politics. One reason for that is they still had a collective, communal farming system.

In regards to another post about North American farming and peasants, the French word “habitant” meant more than “inhabitant.” Originally it meant something more like “farmer with feudal ties to the lord,” and the seigneurial system is best seen as a feudal system. Thus “habitant” meant something a lot more like “peasant” in that classic, farmer tied to land and lord sense in French North America