Let’s put it this way: Suppose there was some horrible mix-up at the pill factory and it turned out that many patients who were told that they would be given prescriptions for potent experimental drugs known to help many out of depression (though unfortunately also often producing uncomfortable side effects) were accidentally merely given Ex-Lax for long periods? And suppose, furthermore, it turned out that among these patients, the rates for remission of depression turned out to be very high, to the point that large numbers of such patients gave ardent testimonials about their experiences with the drugs they were given and how it helped them get their lives back on track.
Since many patients would then be found to have gotten better after experiencing the markedly non-null effects of these drugs, and were willing to ardently testify that it was definitely the drugs they were given which were responsible for their turnaround, that the side effects were pretty powerful stuff but it was worth it in the end, etc., would it therefore be clearly, inarguably true that there must be some particular mechanism by which said drugs, in particular, were especially efficacious at treating depression? Would arguments like “A placebo broke my stomach? Hard to believe” provide sound support for such efficacy, and for the theory that depression was caused by a failure to properly regulate intestinal fluid levels, and so on?
Certainly, it would be a priori possible that such a theory were true. But, once the factory mix-up were discovered, I imagine most people, even most of the posters in this thread, would be skeptical. Probably, many would consider plausible the alternative theory “Well, maybe lots of patients got better on these drugs, not because of some hypothetical mechanism specifically linking a unique actions of these drugs to the ailment being treated, but perhaps for another reason. Perhaps even simply because some large fraction of patients will begin to spontaneously achieve relief from this ailment in any situation where they are able to easily maintain a hope that they are being given potent drugs which can help them out of their condition, regardless of most of the properties of the actual drug given”.
Well, how could you tell whether this was happening? You’d give a large number of people the Ex-Lax and a large number of people other, markedly different treatments (possibly even largely chemically inert treatments), trying as much as possible to make sure there were no unwarranted indications as to which patients were receiving which, beyond improvements in the condition being treated, and you’d see if the treatment efficacy was markedly different between the two groups. And if it wasn’t, you’d likely accept that the Ex-Lax, while truly working in many cases to relieve depression, were not actually achieving this effect by any mechanism above and beyond that equally available with alternative, even chemically inert, treatments as well.
Well, I’m not aware of any trial comparing Ex-Lax to other treatments in terms of their efficacy at relief of depressive disorders to other, as such. But I have heard of trials comparing traditional antidepressant drugs to so-called “placebos” for the same thing. What’s so different in principle about those trials?