Ok, this is getting a little heated now, but then I suppose that’s the point of the Great Debates threads. Well, here’s my two cents worth or should I say two pence worth as I’m British?
Before I start, two books some of you might find interesting on this subject, both by Bill Bryson, an American mainly brought up in England (or is it the other way around?) so is quite qualified to talk about the differences. The first is ‘Made in America- an informal history of the English Language in the United ‘, and the second is ‘The Mother Tongue – English and How it Got That Way’. I haven’t read the second one yet, as its on order, but if its anything like the first then it’s a very well written text, but very light hearted too. I apologise now if I steal any arguments from these books!
The way I see it is that so far points have been made on both sides that perhaps are over stating the truth and I will try and deal with them in some sort of order (that order being whichever comes to mind first!).
I suppose I ought to deal with BMerton’s OP first(I defended him over in a GQ thread which I’m feeling a bit miffed about now!).
You accuse Webster of dictating the English language in order to formalise it. You say this is wrong. So you don’t think that Dr Johnson, one of the great British academics, was dictating the English language when he wrote the first ever dictionary? Do you know how many words exist in the English language. He wouldn’t have been able to note and define every single one. He had to make choices as to what he thought constituted ‘proper’ English. This dictionary then became the basis of what was regarded as proper English and went on to become the Oxford English Dictionary, the very arbiter of what IS and ISN’T a ‘proper’ English word. Technically, if it isn’t in the OED, it isn’t English (or at least within Britain it isn’t). So, while I feel the French have taken it WAY too far, we are also as guilty of forcibly modifying our language too.
Secondly, Dave Stewart is right. English is going to be different everywhere. If you can’t cope with American English being different to ‘English’ English, then how the hell do you cope with the difference between our local vocabularies? Does someone from Newcastle speak the same English as someone from Cornwall or Wales. Hell no!
Again, those who have said that there is a proper grammar, that this grammar is set in stone and should never be changed are taking things too far. Grammar is there for a reason – it is there to lay down some ground rules to enable us to understand each other. Grammar 500 years ago was VERY different from grammar today. These things will change and as long as we can all understand what another says, as long as we pretty much follow the same rules, whats the problem?
The only other point I can remember offhand (Thank God I hear you all cry!) is that American English actually a lot closer to the English of 1800 than British English is. Apparently, this is true and is down to the fundamentally conservative nature of those who formed the first Pilgrims. These are people who fled to preserve their way of life as they saw it, so they regarded it as fundamental that they rpeserved their language too. An example is the word Fall to descrie Autumn. An early 19th Century Englishman would not now what Autumn meant – he would have used fall.
Anyway, enough of this rant – the only thing is to quote scampering gremlin “Saving your collective butts in two World Wars”. You joined for your own reasons- watch what you say!! grin