No Mandelstam. You implied very strongly that there was no reason why strength need lead to economic inequality. Since you’ve already conceded that you were wrong in this there’s no need to attempt to alter your stance to suggest that you implied that it was neglible rather than completely sociological. To quote you: “what are these “numerous reasons” why men and women will “never” be equal? So far as I can tell, the basic differences are these: 1)reproductive organs; 2) reproductive function; 3) certain concomitant hormonal differences.” Since you asked a question of me I started to explain that strength was one of those factors. I’ve proven that now so I can let it rest.
The second debate, which is related to the first, concerns the degree to which hormones determine “personality.” Gaspode maintains that hormones are a “prime controller” of “personality.” I maintain that hormones are certainly a factor in determining human behavior, but I question the extent to which they determine a) “personality” and b) gender identification.
Which seems in direct contradiction with “hormonal differences that may–and I emphasize may–stem directly from the former, or may be exacerbated by socialization itself.” and “socialization/environment impacts relative differences”. Relative differences are physiological.
Which has never at any stage been disputed. Infact this has been stated by myself more then once in this thread.
And Mandelsatm is again being dieingenuous because I explained in my last post that memebers of the scientific community don’t need to quantify "profound and provided examples of their not doing so. The same post also gave a definition of personality. Both questions have been answered in full.
Well I never really engaged such a debate. You made the ignorant assertion that there were no valid reasons why males and females could never be equal. You never at any stage mentioned exyent etc. So long as you concede that there are some reasons why equality is impossible then I’ve won the point.
Pure argument from assertion folks. This is simply a restatemnt of Mandelstams original position. I have provided reasoning, facts and examples which have forced Mandelstam to concede that this cannot be so, and yet rather than follow those argument through she has decided to simply retstate the same of thoroughly debunked rubbish. ANyone who is interested can re-read my previous p[osts where I case this particular ignorant belief of Mandelstams around, back it into a corner despite her best attempts to weasel out of it, and force her to concede that it isn’t true. Ther’e no point in my goingthrough that excercise again since she has already conceded that “that physical strength means that men have greater opportunities for economic success then women due to physical differences” and that the strength difference between men and women is an inevitable one. The point has already been won and lost and Mandelstam is now seerting that the point she has been forced to concede is still valid. You can’t fight that kind of ignorance people.
Yes, but the reason you brought up your MBA example was to weasel away from answering my question. The actual exchange ran:
G: If strength has value and group A has more strength than group B then, all other factors being equal, isn’t group B of more value?
M:The “value” of a person, even when defined as economic value is not reducible to a single determinant. Now let us assume–for the purpose of argument–that an MBA confers access to the highest paid employment in a given society. In that instance “strength of less value” would be irrelevant to the question of a person’s economic value.
Mandelstam the problem is that instead of answering my question which had the clearly stated proviso " If strength has value" you tried to weasel out of it with an example of two groups where strength had no value. I’ve already proven that this is logically invalid and is based on an equivalence of zero. Such factors as you mention above are only irrelevant to the performance of normal MBA business duties because they have no value to the performance of normal MBA business duties. They would not be irrelevant if they had value and as such your example is logically unsound.
I have asked Mandelstam the above question two different ways no less than three times now, and instead of ansering each time she has instead provided an example of where strength does not have value. This is the reason why this debate has been like wrestling a pig in mud. Evry single concession has to be wrung out against disingenuous and dishonest attempts at weaseling away from the stance she actually holds.
You infer that insofar as strength is a requirement that it will give the edge to men. I reply that I cannot think of a single case where extra-female strength would be a requirement (or even a significant optional attribute) of MBAs’ employment.
No Mandelstam, I don’t infer that, it is a condition imposed by the question. Now please answer it. If strength has value and group A has more strength than group B then, all other factors being equal, isn’t group B of more value? You’ve already conceded that male strength has economic value in some positions.
I created an example in which strength was not privileged as the unique and solitary difference between men and women, with all other factors being equal. Such an analysis would be of heuristic value only since, in the real world, all other factors would not be equal.
Then you have failed to address my question, a condition of which was that all other factors were asummed to be equal.
For example, it might also be interesting to query a hypothetical case in which all other factors were equal but race was the difference.
Except that we have indisputable evidence that physiology poduces major differences between genders strength, height and reproductive physiology. We have no evidence that race has any such effects and as such what we are discussing here is an argument from facts, while such an argument applied to race is an argument from ignorance.
Or a case where all others factors were equal but nationality was the focal difference.
Yes I’m sure that would be interesting, but it has no bearing on the reasons why males and females aren’t equal.
Now clearly, Gaspode, you would like me to provide you with a heuristic analysis in which I single out the strength factor as the only difference, assuming that all other work-related factors are equal.
No, I wouldn’t. That’s a strawman. I never requested any such thing. I just want you to answer the freakin’ question. If strength has value and group A has more strength than group B then, all other factors being equal, isn’t group B of more value?
I surmise that the difference in performance between them due to the strength factor will be either zero or some neglible figure caused by exceedingly unusual factors.
Which proves that strength has no value, which proves that you are not answering my quetsion with his example. Now please answer my question. If strength has value and group A has more strength than group B then, all other factors being equal, isn’t group B of more value?
However, my afternoon internet break is at a close, and I have already responded directly to three comments of yours.
And failed to answer any of my direct questions, despite stating in your previous post t"Once again, feel free to re-raise anything you specifically wish to me to answer to." Well I did that several times, yet I have recieved only weaseling, and no answers.