[QUOTE=scotandrsn]
Look, I don’t know how much clearer I can make this. It’s not as though I’m down on stocks. I have a 401K that invests in them. I’m just trying to understand.
A company issues stock, and I buy it. Part of the assets of the company are mine. I also own my share of any profit the company shows. I get it.
If, as the company becomes profitable, and I’m twiddling my thumbs waiting for the company’s managers to decide how much of the profit will be released as dividends and how much will be re-invested in operations, I notice another soul who wants part of the profits, and is willing to pay more than I did for some shares because the company is more profitable, an amount which is more than my likely dividend, it may make more financial sense in certain cases for me to simply sell my shares to that person and go on my merry way. I get that too.
It may in fact be the case that my motivation for buying in the first place was that I anticipated being able sell higher, and that may be the motivation of my buyer as well. I get that too. But I emphasize that the desire to get a share of the profits is not gone, it is simply projected onto some future potential buyer.
Until we get to the case where the company never releases dividends, and every single person transacting shares of that company is aware that it has not happened and is not likely to. Once we get there, it’s turtles all the way down, and the company’s name may as well not be on any paperwork, because without someone’s belief that they will eventually share in it, any connection between the price of the stock and the company’s profitability (a conecpt repeated umpteen times in this thread, yes I read it) is illusory, a selling point to catch suckers, IMO. It’s simply people buying a worthless piece of paper on the gamble that they can find someone dumb enough to pay even more for it.
I thank WoodenTaco for making the first post I’ve read in this or any similar thread that admits to this, although even a “house of cards” is built on something, unlike the scenario above.
But I would be the first to admit I don’t know anything about this, which is why I put forth the example of someone paying high just before the stock price tumbles, simply to show that there must be a bottom this thing, a last buyer who can not expect to profit from the sale of the shares. Either that person knew they couldn’t turn a profit and knows some way that I don’t know of other than dividends to profit from owning a piece of a company that does not issue them, or they didn’t know and the whole business of buying and selling shares in a company that does not pay dividends is just a big game of hot potato, and the highest paying buyer is simply the one who loses.
So I’m just trying to understand, which is it? I think WoodenTaco has gven me the answer.
[/QUOTE]
There is no “last buyer” unless the company folds. This will eventually be the case but if that is 5 billion years from now when the sun flames out, it isn’t a major factor right now.
It seems like you are stuck on the idea that absent a dividend, your shares only represent a hope that a bigger sucker will come along. This is wrong on two counts: First, the next buyer is not necessarily a sucker. If you have chosen a good stock, it will continue to increase in value indefinitely. Second, as pointed out many times above, it’s rise in value while you hold it is greater if it does not pay a dividend. Every time a company pays a dividend its intrinsic worth is diminished by the cash amount required to pay the dividend.
Finally, if you are just really stuck on the value of getting your dividend, choose your own dividend amount and pay it to yourself by liquidating an amount of your stock equivalent to the amount you think the dividend should be. If you have $100,000 worth of stock and want a 5% dividend, liquidate $5,000 worth of your stock every year. In the best scenario, you will never run out of stock. With other stocks, you might eventually liquidate all of it. It pretty much amounts to the same thing, though, and even though you are choosing to “pay” yourself the dividend, it amounts to the same thing as the company paying it. The 'intrinsic value" of your residual share of the company after you take out your “dividend” is reduced by the amount of that dividend every time you pay it to yourself and the ability of the remaining portion to generate income is equally diminished.