Why did people hate gays for so long?

The question should not be “What does the Bible say?” The question should be “Why do people believe it?”

Most the people I’ve ever met have TMJ (temporomandibular joints).

Sounds like you have TMD (Temporomandibular joint disorder).

No pun intended, but it sounds like your college boyfriends were all pricks. I never pressure my GFs for BJ, but if the mood struck them, great. I did reciprocate, and not just when they began.

I always wondered what gomorrahizing was. Something so bad God destroyed a whole city, but so unspeakable that it wasn’t even euphemized.

That seems unlikely given that it is both relatively common (compared to genuine defects), and the fact it appears in so many species. It seems likely that a certain amount of homosexual behavior is either desirable (in the Darwinian sense) for its own sake , or is a side effect of something else that is.

Wasn’t there a discussion recently on how addiioinal support by non parent relatives could be an advantage? As in, one child supported by parents and non-reproducing aunts and uncles might have a better shot than two kids supported only by their respective parents?

Also, in olden times, there was the “homosexual acts are associated with temple idolatry” could be a factor.

I feel the same way about heterosexual sex. :wink:

Whatever it was, I’m sure I’ve done it (or had it done to me).

And yes, there are things you heteros do that turn my stomach. And if you think that male-male sex is disgusting, remember that there are damn few things 2 men can do that can’t be done by a man and a woman (e.g. docking).

Does Hal Briston know this? :p:D

Note the number of vocal anti-gay politicians and preachers who turn out to be closet cases.

That’s not a “modern interpretation” – that’s what it explicitly says right there in the Bible:

As you wish; see above.

For values of “supports” equal to “unambiguously declares to be true”.

You’ll note that the phrase “modern interpretation” is in quotes. I was using Sage Rat’s words in an ironic way.

Hey, if you’re happy to ignore all context and just pick out a single sentence from a full page of text, be my guest.

Which of the following points would you unequivocally state is impossible to be true?

  1. Ezekiel 16 is a discussion of women, not people in general. Is that impossible?
  2. God would only destroy a city if both its men and women had sinned, not if only the women had. Is that unthinkable?
  3. Ezekiel 16 is a critique of the Israelites of the time at which Ezekiel was speaking, and hence stressed the sins that he felt the Israelites were committing at that particular time, not the sins that the Sodomites were more generally known for historically. Is that impossible?
  4. Ezekiel may not have known what sins were committed by the Sodomites, and simply attached whatever sins he wanted to lambaste to the name Sodom. God striking you down from the sky is, after all, a pretty good motivator to not do that sort of thing. Is that impossible?
  5. He was comparing Sodom with Samaria when he pointed out the “hospitality” sins. Is this reading impossible?
  6. He accused the Sodomites of prostitution, infidelity, and other sexual misdemeanors. Is this reading impossible?

Reading through the whole chapter, to me it sounds like a man ranting against the sins of the day, not the sins of the past. To me, it sounds like he’s talking about women in particular, which would preclude any chance of mentioning sodomy no matter how hard he would try, without going entirely off topic. Sure, he accuses the Sodomites of being inhospitable and makes it out as the crime of the century, but that’s because he’s talking to a group of women, and being hospitable was their only job in life beyond pushing out babies in Ancient Israel.

My version of events explains everything we see in Ezekiel 16 plus it jives with the history of the word Sodomy. Your version of events has Ezekiel tangentially throwing out historical trivia about inhospitableness midway through a rant about prostitution, infidelity, licentiousness, vanity, and egotism. And, it conflicts with the history of the word Sodomy. Why is your version, lifted bodily out of all context, supposed to be more believable?

Impossible, no; irrelevant, yes.

Cite?

Ezekiel believed that contemporary Israel was free of proscribed sexual behaviors? I find that a bit difficult to believe.

Ezekiel was ignorant of the religious writings and traditions handed down to his era? That would make it a bit difficult to take him seriously as any sort of prophet.

See answer #1.

And this has what, exactly, to do with “sodomy” as you are defining the term?

The women he was talking about had no tongues? Was this an earlier Divine punishment for some sin?

Yeah, I still don’t understand the clustering of homophobia that i have observed in physicians, anyone else nnotice that?

You stated that the one sentence was unambiguously a discussion of everything wrong with Sodom that ever mattered. If it’s a discussion of only the women of Sodom, then it’s not about everything wrong with Sodom. A discussion of male-on-male sex would simply never come up in a discussion about women’s sins, for example.

Given that God said, in Genesis, that he wouldn’t destroy the town if he could find more than X righteous people, it seems reasonable to believe that he was a bit choosy about blithely destroying a town where half of everyone wasn’t particularly sinful.

Ezekiel, judging by the text, believed that the women of the time were still committing the sins of prostitution, infidelity, licentiousness, vanity, inhospitality, etc. Hence, he talks about them.

I’m not religious. The idea that Ezekiel was just a guy, limited to what was known in his day, doesn’t seem particularly implausible. According to the Bible chronology, Lot would have lived sometime between 1400 and 1200 BC, six to eight hundred years before Ezekiel was preaching. If it was a historic event to begin with, I’d vote that’s plenty of time for the people to have lost all knowledge of what it was all about.

If he’s comparing the two, then he’s not saying that these are the principal crimes of Sodom, he’s saying that this particular subset is the one that isn’t shared with Samaria but is also, of course, “really bad to do girls”. If it was impossible for this reading to be true, saying that it’s an unambiguous statement of Sodom’s true crime would be reasonable. If it’s an entirely plausible reading, “unambiguous” it ain’t.

Because, if he was simply pointing out what sins the Sodomites had that the Samarians didn’t in your one, singled out sentence, then the principal sins that he talks about and ascribes to the Sodomites include all the other sins talked about through all of Ezekiel 16. Which, again, doesn’t make the stance that the destruction of Sodom was unambiguously about inhospitality. It could well have been about the infidelity and licentiousness that he accused the Sodomites of a sentence earlier.

The ancient definition of sodomy seems principally to have been one of ejaculating (i.e. releasing semen) for purposes other than making babies. This includes anal sex, oral sex, masturbation, pulling out, etc. Tongues, last I heard, do not spray semen.

I don’t think that’s accurate, or at least not universally so (even though Japanese women are, to this day, very much second rate citizen)

Yeah they have some pretty liberated ideas about sex.

My wife’s nephew was charged with having anal sex with his girlfriend. She was “of majority.” legally old enough to have sex with, and it is legal to have anal sex in Virginia – but for because of the anti-sodomy laws, the “age of majority” is higher for anal sex, and he ran afoul of that. It was not (yet) legal to have sex with her in that way.

That specific charge was dropped – I do not know the mind of the prosecutors, but they declined to put the girl on the stand for any reason, and dropped all charges depending on assertions she had made, so I would assume they found her a poor witness and wanted to keep her out of cross-examination (as opposed to deciding not to enforce the anti-sodomy provision of the age of consent).

I remember reading some historical social study that looked into the matter and came up with some observations, possibly self-evident. For example, homosexual hate through history is male led with the loudest having their own issues that needed constant reminding. Then, considering that male’s sex perspective and big-time turn-on is the perception of and actual power (penetration being the key exhibit of that power) during sexual act with a woman the idea of any male being sexually subjugated by another male arouses (pun not intended) sense of weakness and unmanliness. One that needs to be addressed. Also, even today, the ultimate act of shame upon a young male is penetration by a foreign object performed by heterosexual males. Because they know that the victim knows how shameful of an act that is. I think it goes very deep into dark alleys of male psych difficult to articulate.

That is why, I’m guessing, unwanted attention and overt signaling by a homosexual person to a heterosexual man sometime ends up very badly.

Anyway, man written God’s Books only hyperbolized essence of the male herd mentality and its sexual power supreme.

If I might ask… how did anyone find out in order to press charges? :confused: