# Why do only Spanish cultures use Jesus as a first name? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [July 25, 2005, 11:29am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034 "2005-07-25T11:29:33Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 20\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![Crandolph](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/7cd45c/32.png) [@Crandolph](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Crandolph)\ **Post date:** [July 26, 2005, 3:34am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/21 "2005-07-26T03:34:27Z")
> [@Johanna](#): > > **Hajario** ’s right. In Arabic it has only one s. The transliterations into the Roman alphabet I’ve seen almost always have a double-s, I’m guessing to keep westerners (or at least English speakers) from prounoncing the name “Is-AY.” I met a couple of fellows who even spell it “Eissa.” ---
**Author:** ![filmyak](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/f/94ad74/32.png) [@filmyak](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/filmyak)\ **Post date:** [July 26, 2005, 5:57am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/22 "2005-07-26T05:57:47Z")
Actually, the REAL question (as I once heard someone remark) is why Jesus, who lived in the Middle East, would have a Spanish name… ---
**Author:** ![Charlie\_Tan](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/charlie_tan/32/12582_2.png) [@Charlie\_Tan](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Charlie_Tan)\ **Post date:** [July 26, 2005, 9:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/23 "2005-07-26T21:03:22Z")
> [@Captain Amazing](#): > > Except the Spanish Muslim rulers didn’t mandate conversion, and so there were large (and in most places, majority) Christian populations in Spain under Muslim rule. Uniformity in religion didn’t come to Spain until the Christian conquest, where the Christian rulers forced both Muslims and Jews to convert to Christianity (the Jews in 1492, the Muslims in the early 1500s). No, but a lot found it convenient to adapt. The closer they were to Cordoba, Seville and Granada, the more convenient it was. Case in point: Ibn Hazem (994-1064). ---
**Author:** ![clairobscur](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/839c29/32.png) [@clairobscur](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/clairobscur)\ **Post date:** [July 26, 2005, 9:42pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/24 "2005-07-26T21:42:13Z")
> [@bordelond](#): > > My understanding is that the Russian name _Vladimir_ is a rough cognate to Old-French-derived _Raymond_, meaning “king of the world”. Actually, despite its similarity with the french words for “king” and “world”, the surname “Raymond” is of germanic origin ( Reginmundo, Raginmund, Ragnemodus in latin) and has nothing to do with the french language (though it’s a common french name). It originally meant something like “advisor”. ---
**Author:** ![Orual](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/779978/32.png) [@Orual](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Orual)\ **Post date:** [July 27, 2005, 1:49am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/25 "2005-07-27T01:49:05Z")
> [@Gary T](#): > > The question I think the OP is asking, and the question I definitely want to ask, is why, in places where Jesus of Nazareth as mentioned in the New Testament is called “Jesus,” do people not use “Jesus” (NOT Joshua, etc. – **Jesus** ) as a first name (with the exceptions noted in the OP)? Because the New Testament was written in Greek. Greek Jesus = Hebrew Yeshua/Yehoshua. **cmkeller** , I believe that **Noone Special** ’s point was that _Christians_ didn’t want Jesus to have a common, Hebrew (i.e Jewish) name. ---
**Author:** ![Gary\_T](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/g/3ec8ea/32.png) [@Gary\_T](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Gary_T)\ **Post date:** [July 27, 2005, 3:27am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/26 "2005-07-27T03:27:15Z")
> [@Orual](#): > > Because the New Testament was written in Greek. > Greek Jesus = Hebrew Yeshua/Yehoshua. No offense, but that doesn’t answer the question. I’m not reading a Bible written in Greek or Hebrew. I’m reading one written in English. The name in question is spelled J-E-S-U-S. Joshua, Yeshua, Yehoshua, etc. are irrelevant to my query. Other names in an English Bible are used: Abraham, John, Mary, Ruth, Peter, etc. – just as they are written, in English, in the Bible. The question, in a narrow form, is why don’t English speaking cultures use Jesus – just as it is written, in English, in the Bible – as a first name? The corollary observation is that (at least some, probably most, maybe all) Spanish speaking cultures use Jesus – just as it is written, in Spanish, in the Bible – as a first name. ---
**Author:** ![Captain\_Amazing](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/6de8d8/32.png) [@Captain\_Amazing](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Captain_Amazing)\ **Post date:** [July 27, 2005, 3:32am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/27 "2005-07-27T03:32:08Z")
> [@The Gaspode](#): > > No, but a lot found it convenient to adapt. The closer they were to Cordoba, Seville and Granada, the more convenient it was. Case in point: Ibn Hazem (994-1064). Well, clearely there were converts, especially in the south. And, what about Ibn Hazm? As far as I know, he was born a Muslim to Muslim parents, and his ancestry was Arab. ---
**Author:** ![Charlie\_Tan](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/charlie_tan/32/12582_2.png) [@Charlie\_Tan](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Charlie_Tan)\ **Post date:** [July 27, 2005, 8:09am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/28 "2005-07-27T08:09:50Z")
> [@Captain Amazing](#): > > Well, clearely there were converts, especially in the south. And, what about Ibn Hazm? As far as I know, he was born a Muslim to Muslim parents, and his ancestry was Arab. > [@Encylopædia Britannica](#): > > Ibn Hazm was born into a notable family that claimed descent from a Persian client of Yazid, the brother of Mu’awiyah, the first of the Umayyad dynasty rulers in Syria. Muslim families of Iberian (Spanish) background commonly adopted genealogies that identified them with the Arabs; scholars therefore tend to favour evidence suggesting that Ibn Hazm was a member of a family of Iberian Christian background from Manta Lisham (west of Seville). From Britannica DVD-rom 2001. ---
**Author:** ![tim314](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/tim314/32/3468_2.png) [@tim314](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tim314)\ **Post date:** [July 27, 2005, 8:45am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/29 "2005-07-27T08:45:36Z")
> [@Gary T](#): > > No offense, but that doesn’t answer the question. > > I’m not reading a Bible written in Greek or Hebrew. I’m reading one written in English. The name in question is spelled J-E-S-U-S. Joshua, Yeshua, Yehoshua, etc. are irrelevant to my query. Other names in an English Bible are used: Abraham, John, Mary, Ruth, Peter, etc. – just as they are written, in English, in the Bible. The question, in a narrow form, is why don’t English speaking cultures use Jesus – just as it is written, in English, in the Bible – as a first name? The corollary observation is that (at least some, probably most, maybe all) Spanish speaking cultures use Jesus – just as it is written, in Spanish, in the Bible – as a first name. Well, I think in English speaking cultures it would be seen as somewhat presumptuous to name your child after Jesus, just as it would be to name your child “God.” But it’s not clear to me why this isn’t the case for other cultures. ---
**Author:** ![DerWanderer](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/a88e4f/32.png) [@DerWanderer](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/DerWanderer)\ **Post date:** [September 18, 2014, 4:26pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/30 "2014-09-18T16:26:56Z")
It’s quite easy the answer, really, looking at it historically: originally was used “Jesus” as the final part of a complete compound first name: José (please recall that in Spanish the ‘J’ sounds as a hard ‘H’), Joseph, de Jesús, Alberto de Jesús, Felipe de Jesús, etc., meaning -first name (José, Alberto, Juan, etc.), OF Jesus, that is, property of Jesus, dedicated to Jesus. Later grew the custom of just calling familiarly those with that kind of compound name as ‘Jesus’ only, and from this to later christen some newborns as just Jesus. Same applies to ladies, as in those countries many were and still are christened with a compound name, a common one female name added with ‘de Jesús’, like María de Jesús, Juana de Jesús, etc., and the same process was applied so the ladies would become eventually to be christened, something even more difficult to understand for who does not know how this came to happen, directly as “Jesusa”, a hispanicized female-ization of the name Jesus. 🙂 ---
**Author:** ![Ike\_Witt](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/ike_witt/32/283_2.png) [@Ike\_Witt](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Ike_Witt)\ **Post date:** [September 18, 2014, 7:39pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/31 "2014-09-18T19:39:12Z")
After 10 and a half years on the cross, this thread comes back. ---
**Author:** ![johnpost](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/f17d59/32.png) [@johnpost](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/johnpost)\ **Post date:** [September 18, 2014, 7:54pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/32 "2014-09-18T19:54:15Z")
zombie or no hoping it might rub off. ---
**Author:** ![syncrolecyne](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/f08c70/32.png) [@syncrolecyne](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/syncrolecyne)\ **Post date:** [September 19, 2014, 12:31am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/33 "2014-09-19T00:31:18Z")
There is no single Spanish naming tradition. Do Catalans and Basques use the name? ---
**Author:** ![Cognoscant](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/bbe5ce/32.png) [@Cognoscant](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Cognoscant)\ **Post date:** [September 19, 2014, 1:17am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/34 "2014-09-19T01:17:06Z")
It came back because I was stuck behind a “Jesus and Sons Landscaping” truck on the way home from work today. Outside of Miami and LA that truck would have had rocks thrown at it for sacrilege. ---
**Author:** ![OldGuy](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/3bc359/32.png) [@OldGuy](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/OldGuy)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 3:26am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/35 "2015-03-14T03:26:10Z")
> [@Cognoscant](#): > > It came back because I was stuck behind a “Jesus and Sons Landscaping” truck on the way home from work today. Outside of Miami and LA that truck would have had rocks thrown at it for sacrilege. Wonder if the son is also Jesus and when eh takes over will rename the company, “Jesus and Dad”. That would really rile them up. ---
**Author:** ![Cabin\_Fever\_1](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/cabin_fever_1/32/2908_2.png) [@Cabin\_Fever\_1](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Cabin_Fever_1)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 3:33am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/36 "2015-03-14T03:33:39Z")
> [@Paul\_in\_Qatar](#): > > Well, ‘Jesus’ is ‘Issa’ (or Essa if you prefer) in Arabic. It is a fairly common name. Interesting. A little bit of IgnoranceFought. Thank you. ---
**Author:** ![smiling\_bandit](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/e9a140/32.png) [@smiling\_bandit](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/smiling_bandit)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 3:41am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/37 "2015-03-14T03:41:46Z")
> [@OldGuy](#): > > Wonder if the son is also Jesus and when eh takes over will rename the company, “Jesus and Dad”. That would really rile them up. Could be worse. They could be _carpenters_. ---
**Author:** ![Nava](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/n/da6949/32.png) [@Nava](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Nava)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 7:35am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/38 "2015-03-14T07:35:17Z")
> [@syncrolecyne](#): > > There is no single Spanish naming tradition. Do Catalans and Basques use the name? Manel (Emmanuel, another name for Jesus) is one of the stereotypical Catalan names, to the point where calling yourself Manuel (Spanish) or Manel (Catalan) is a political statement; Jesus and Jesús haven’t gotten as politicized. Basque are as likely to be a Jesús or a Manuel as about anybody else in Spain. In general these names have become less common in recent generations, but as part of the general influx of new names. Pronunciations, to the best of my bad API: Catalan /'ʒɛ.sus/ Basque /'xe.sus/ Spanish /xe.'sus/ A common nickname for Manuel is Manolo; nowadays that form is inusual but a few decades ago it was very common (see: singer Manolo Escobar, tennis player Manolo Santana). ---
**Author:** ![Ignotus](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/i/ecc23a/32.png) [@Ignotus](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Ignotus)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 7:51am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/39 "2015-03-14T07:51:25Z")
> [@bordelond](#): > > Tricky, because the Russian word _mir_ means both “world” and “peace” (“World peace” is translated as _miru mir_😃 ). > > My understanding is that the Russian name _Vladimir_ is a rough cognate to Old-French-derived _Raymond_, meaning “king of the world”. Vald-mær(r) would also be a perfectly legit Germanic name: Renowned by Power. So there’s a lot to this. ---
**Author:** ![bob\_2](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bob_2/32/3341_2.png) [@bob\_2](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/bob_2)\ **Post date:** [March 14, 2015, 11:44am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034/40 "2015-03-14T11:44:04Z")
Annoying how so many people hijack this thread with irrelevant comments about Vladimirs and Joshuas. I suppose that the problem is that, as they would say in QI, nobody knows. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034.md?page=1) [Next page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-only-spanish-cultures-use-jesus-as-a-first-name/314034.md?page=3)