# Why do so many Hispanic last names end with z?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [June 13, 2011, 8:48pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355 "2011-06-13T20:48:41Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 20\
**Page:** 2

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**Author:** ![Acsenray](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/acsenray/32/4519_2.png) [@Acsenray](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Acsenray)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 2:52am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/21 "2011-06-14T02:52:27Z")

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> [@ZipperJJ](#):
>
> What is Perez? Is there a name like “Pere” in Spanish?

Anglo patronymics can go even further afield –

Aitken - son of Adam  
Hancock - son of John  
Hodgekiss - son of Roger  
Saunders - son of Alexander  
Dobbins, Hobbes - son of Robert  
Whatley - son of Walter

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**Author:** ![Spectre\_of\_Pithecanthropus](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/spectre_of_pithecanthropus/32/12343_2.png) [@Spectre\_of\_Pithecanthropus](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Spectre_of_Pithecanthropus)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 6:11am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/22 "2011-06-14T06:11:31Z")

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> [@robert\_columbia](#):
>
> Possibly from the same source as -s names in English (a Germanic language)?
> 
> e.g.
> 
> Williams = son of William  
> Andrews = son of Andrew  
> Phillips = son of Phillip

I thought the -s names were typically Welsh. Though it isn’t too surprising since they do speak English there, too, mostly.

Wikipedia in general is great at explaining questions like this. There’s an entry for just about every common surname in the more widely spoken languages.

So I did know that Sanchez means “son of Sancho”, but I can’t say I’ve ever known of a person named Sancho, except for early Spanish kings.

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**Author:** ![Toucanna](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/3bc359/32.png) [@Toucanna](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Toucanna)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:29am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/23 "2011-06-14T07:29:15Z")

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> [@Spectre\_of\_Pithecanthropus](#):
>
> {snip}So I did know that Sanchez means “son of Sancho”, but I can’t say I’ve ever known of a person named Sancho, except for early Spanish kings.

Perhaps because no one wants to be likened to “Sancho Panza” (Sancho Beer-gut) in Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra’s _Don Quixote de la Mancha_?  
Also, in Mexico, “El Sancho” is slang for the married woman’s lover who sneaks into the house once the husband has gone off to work or if the husband is in jail. Interesting discussion on “el Sancho”: [el sanchez/el sancho | WordReference Forums](http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=1068292)

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**Author:** ![Uncertain](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/u/6a8cbe/32.png) [@Uncertain](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Uncertain)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 12:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/24 "2011-06-14T12:00:51Z")

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> [@ZipperJJ](#):
>
> What is Perez? Is there a name like “Pere” in Spanish?

I think “Pere” is the Catalan equivalent of Pedro (Peter); compare French “Pierre”.

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**Author:** ![Acsenray](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/acsenray/32/4519_2.png) [@Acsenray](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Acsenray)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 1:50pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/25 "2011-06-14T13:50:19Z")

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> [@Spectre\_of\_Pithecanthropus](#):
>
> I thought the -s names were typically Welsh. Though it isn’t too surprising since they do speak English there, too, mostly.

The Welsh picked up the -s from the English. Names like Jones, Davis, Williams, Edwards, Hughes, Richards, etc., could be held by people with either Welsh or English ancestries. But etymologically, these are English names.

Welsh patronymics are formed from the P-Celtic form of “mac” – “map” or “mab.” Thus –

Upjohn, Bevan, Bowen (Evans) - son of John  
Pulliam - son of William  
Pugh - son of Huw  
Powell - son of Hywel  
Penry, Parry - son of Henry  
Price - son of Rhys  
Pritchard - son of Richard  
Prothero - son of Rhydderch  
Prosser - son of Rhossr  
Proger - son of Roger  
Probert, Probyn - son of Robert

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**Author:** ![Gyrate](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/gyrate/32/3588_2.png) [@Gyrate](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Gyrate)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 1:54pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/26 "2011-06-14T13:54:55Z")

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Names beginning with “Fitz-” (Fitzpatrick, Fitzgerald, etc) are also “son of” names. I vaguely recall reading that bastard sons of monarchs were saddled with these in particular.

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**Author:** ![Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hypnagogic_jerk/32/4252_2.png) [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hypnagogic_Jerk)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 4:41pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/27 "2011-06-14T16:41:16Z")

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> [@Spectre\_of\_Pithecanthropus](#):
>
> So I did know that Sanchez means “son of Sancho”, but I can’t say I’ve ever known of a person named Sancho, except for early Spanish kings.

According to Wikipedia, Sancho is a name of Basque origin, but it also says “citation needed”. To anyone who knows, is that accurate? I cannot think of any known Latin or Germanic name that looks like Sancho, so it makes sense that it come from a completely different language, but OTOH it could as well be Celtic or something else.

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**Author:** ![JRDelirious](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/jrdelirious/32/9531_2.png) [@JRDelirious](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JRDelirious)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 5:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/28 "2011-06-14T17:46:18Z")

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> [@bordelond](#):
>
> Some of these patronymics get slightly condensed over time. “Perez” is “son of Pedro”, I believe.

Similarly _ **Díaz** _ (Rather than “Dieguez”) is “son (or descendant) of _ **Diego** _.”

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**Author:** ![BwanaBob](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bwanabob/32/2985_2.png) [@BwanaBob](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/BwanaBob)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 6:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/29 "2011-06-14T18:20:04Z")

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Since Juan is such a common first name and I’ve never seen Juanez, I’m going to assume that Son of John is Juarez. Am I right?

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**Author:** ![bordelond](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bordelond/32/150_2.png) [@bordelond](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/bordelond)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 6:58pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/30 "2011-06-14T18:58:51Z")

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> [@BwanaBob](#):
>
> Since Juan is such a common first name and I’ve never seen Juanez, I’m going to assume that Son of John is Juarez. Am I right?

I’d have assumed so, but here’s [a site that suggests “no”](http://www.surnamedb.com/Surname/Juarez), FWIW:

> [@](#):
>
> In this case the name was originally of two elements believed to have been ‘sur’ meaning south and ‘hari’ - army. Whether this means that people who held this name were originally of the ‘Army of the South’ is unclear, but this seems a reasonable explanation.

That site also mentions that Suarez and Juarez are thought to be variants of the same name.

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**Author:** ![robert\_columbia](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e79b87/32.png) [@robert\_columbia](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/robert_columbia)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/31 "2011-06-14T19:03:16Z")

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> [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](#):
>
> According to Wikipedia, Sancho is a name of Basque origin, but it also says “citation needed”. To anyone who knows, is that accurate? I cannot think of any known Latin or Germanic name that looks like Sancho, so it makes sense that it come from a completely different language, but OTOH it could as well be Celtic or something else.

A Celtic origin would seem perfectly reasonable, but there were other cultural influences in Iberia.

What about Arabic or Berber? Could the name be from the Moors?

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**Author:** ![Captain\_Amazing](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/6de8d8/32.png) [@Captain\_Amazing](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Captain_Amazing)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/32 "2011-06-14T19:05:18Z")

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> [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](#):
>
> I cannot think of any known Latin or Germanic name that looks like Sancho, so it makes sense that it come from a completely different language, but OTOH it could as well be Celtic or something else.

Sancho is derived from Latin “Sanctius”-holy, as is the Italian name Santo/Santino.

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**Author:** ![Acsenray](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/acsenray/32/4519_2.png) [@Acsenray](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Acsenray)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/33 "2011-06-14T19:05:54Z")

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I believe the Spanish patronym for “Juan” is “Juanico.”

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**Author:** ![bordelond](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bordelond/32/150_2.png) [@bordelond](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/bordelond)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:16pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/34 "2011-06-14T19:16:54Z")

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I’ve doing some quick-&-dirty Googling … and I am surprised that I am having a hard time finding a Spanish cognate to “Johnson”. Interesting.

There can certainly be “holes” or “thin spots” in a language’s surname inventory, though. In English, a first name as common as “Mark” is matched to the rare patronymic, “Markson”. “Georgeson” and “Victorson” are out there, too, if uncommon.

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**Author:** ![bordelond](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bordelond/32/150_2.png) [@bordelond](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/bordelond)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:27pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/35 "2011-06-14T19:27:16Z")

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> [@Acsenray](#):
>
> I believe the Spanish patronym for “Juan” is “Juanico.”

[This site](http://www.cs.cmu.edu/~kvs/heraldry/spanish16/patro-freq.html) suggests “Yañez” as Jaun’s “-ez form” patronymic.

With that information, Googling “Yañez” turns up lots of addtional cites. While I have heard of that surname, it doesn’t seem to be particularly common.

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**Author:** ![Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hypnagogic_jerk/32/4252_2.png) [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hypnagogic_Jerk)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:36pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/36 "2011-06-14T19:36:34Z")

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> [@Captain\_Amazing](#):
>
> Sancho is derived from Latin “Sanctius”-holy, as is the Italian name Santo/Santino.

This sounds quite possible. Do you have a cite for it?

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**Author:** ![Captain\_Amazing](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/6de8d8/32.png) [@Captain\_Amazing](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Captain_Amazing)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 7:52pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/37 "2011-06-14T19:52:28Z")

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> [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](#):
>
> This sounds quite possible. Do you have a cite for it?

Not a good one. Wiktionary says so.

> **[Sancho - Wiktionary, the free dictionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Sancho)**

as does Wikiname, which pretty stupidly says in one sentence that the name is of Latin origin and then in the next that it “may be of Basque origin.”

[http://wiki.name.com/en/Sancho#ORIGIN\_AND\_HISTORY](http://wiki.name.com/en/Sancho#ORIGIN_AND_HISTORY)

So take those sites for what they’re worth.

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**Author:** ![Acsenray](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/acsenray/32/4519_2.png) [@Acsenray](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Acsenray)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 8:12pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/38 "2011-06-14T20:12:31Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> There can certainly be “holes” or “thin spots” in a language’s surname inventory, though. In English, a first name as common as “Mark” is matched to the rare patronymic, “Markson”. “Georgeson” and “Victorson” are out there, too, if uncommon.

I don’t think there are really holes here. After all, in English a patronymic can be formed with no alterations whatsoever – Mark (or Marks), George, and Victor can by themselves operate as “son of Mark,” “son of George,” and “son of Victor.” I’m not sure how common they are, but I’m certain I’ve seen “George” and “Victor” used as family names.

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**Author:** ![bordelond](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/bordelond/32/150_2.png) [@bordelond](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/bordelond)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 8:34pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/39 "2011-06-14T20:34:55Z")

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> [@Acsenray](#):
>
> I don’t think there are really holes here.

Yeah … I went back in and added “thin spots” after doing a little research. I just meant “holes” and “thin spots” as a matter of frequency. But then, names tended to be unevenly distributed anway. Loads of “Johnsons” & “Smiths”, not very many “Marksons”.

There’s no “Dweezilsons” out there, are there? 😃

> [@Acsenray](#):
>
> I’m not sure how common they are, but I’m certain I’ve seen “George” and “Victor” used as family names.

Ah, I see, I wasn’t counting “first-name” surnames like “George” or “Victor” as patronymics. Of course, they very well could have been father-derived names way back when.

Still, you’re absolutely right about the not-too-uncommon surname “Marks” – it’s built on the model of “Peters”, “Michaels”, “Richards”, etc.

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**Author:** ![John\_Mace](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/john_mace/32/185_2.png) [@John\_Mace](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/John_Mace)\
**Post date:** [June 14, 2011, 8:42pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-do-so-many-hispanic-last-names-end-with-z/585355/40 "2011-06-14T20:42:19Z")

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> [@Acsenray](#):
>
> I don’t think there are really holes here. After all, in English a patronymic can be formed with no alterations whatsoever – Mark (or Marks), George, and Victor can by themselves operate as “son of Mark,” “son of George,” and “son of Victor.” I’m not sure how common they are, but I’m certain I’ve seen “George” and “Victor” used as family names.

Yeah, like Boy George!

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