# why does French have two ways to say "yes"? do other languages? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [November 24, 2008, 8:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227 "2008-11-24T08:54:43Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 20\ **Page:** 3
**Author:** ![Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hypnagogic_jerk/32/4252_2.png) [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hypnagogic_Jerk)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 6:21pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/41 "2008-11-24T18:21:33Z")
> [@Daerlyn](#): > > I was getting likewise confused - I never have used ‘si’ as an affirmative, and couldn’t think of anyone else I grew up with who does either, but if it’s strictly a European usage, that would make sense. I don’t know if it’s strictly European (maybe I’ll ask my African co-workers if they use it; I’ve never noticed). What I do know is that at least in Quebec, it’s almost never used. I suppose the same is true with Acadian French, but I couldn’t guarantee it. (I have an Acadian friend, maybe I’ll ask her.) ---
**Author:** ![Chronos](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/chronos/32/134_2.png) [@Chronos](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Chronos)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 6:22pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/42 "2008-11-24T18:22:41Z")
Classical Latin also usually just repeats the verb. This leads to the amusing situation that, if you were to ask Michael Phelps in Latin whether he swims, the answer would be “no” (that being the Latin word for “I swim”). You can also use “maxime” or “minime” for an emphatic “yes” or “no” (approximately, “absolutely” or “not at all”). ---
**Author:** ![pulykamell](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/pulykamell/32/3166_2.png) [@pulykamell](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/pulykamell)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 7:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/43 "2008-11-24T19:01:22Z")
> [@zagloba](#): > > Thanks, **pulykamell**. > > I only knew a few guidebook phrases when I first got to Poland. I hadn’t heard of the Polish word _no_, so it did strike the ear oddly at first. From the context I quickly figured out what was going on, aided perhaps by knowing that _ano_ means yes in Czech. Sometimes when having an English conversation with a native Polish speaker, they’d start doing the “no … no … no.” This was more jarring. Yeah, “no” has several uses in Polish. One is as the above, just conversational feedback that you’re paying attention. It can also be used in the same way we use the word “well” in English, as in “No, co chcesz?” (“Well, what do you want?”). With the right inflection, it can also mean “come on” or “go on” in the sense of “tell me what happened next.” Once again, the same as in English if you inflect “Well…?” with a rising tone at the end. ---
**Author:** ![Dr.Drake](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/ad7895/32.png) [@Dr.Drake](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Dr.Drake)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 7:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/44 "2008-11-24T19:05:18Z")
Re: Polish — I’m confused. Are you saying the word which means the opposite of _yes_? Or are you saying a word which is a homonym of English _no_, but has a different meaning in Polish, like Russian ну (nu) or Yiddish _nu_? ---
**Author:** ![Olentzero](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/90ced4/32.png) [@Olentzero](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Olentzero)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 7:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/45 "2008-11-24T19:15:12Z")
I’m pretty sure it’s the latter - I read through the post substituting ну for the Polish word and it still made sense. The Russians use the particle in much the same way (except, IIRC, the discourse feedback function). Basque, AFAIK, only has one word for yes - _bai_ - but I don’t have my grammar books here with me to identify the structures used for the examples we’re talking about. ---
**Author:** ![Hazle\_Weatherfield](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/h/e9bcb4/32.png) [@Hazle\_Weatherfield](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hazle_Weatherfield)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 7:43pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/46 "2008-11-24T19:43:07Z")
> [@Sophistry\_and\_Illusion](#): > > The problem is, in English you have to add the explanation to make your meaning clear. In German, you can just say, “Doch,” and it is quite clear that you mean to contradict the premise of the question. In English, if you respond to the above question by simply saying, “Yes,” the answer is (to my ear) ambiguous. It would be nice if English had a word that served this particular function. How about, “DUH?” 😛 ---
**Author:** ![sailor](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/a587f6/32.png) [@sailor](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/sailor)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 7:58pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/47 "2008-11-24T19:58:31Z")
> [@guizot](#): > > This is not a question of simple lexicon, but rather discourse analysis. English speakers will often say “no” when they agree with something someone has just said in a conversation. That’s because the other person has said something with an element of doubt, and the speaker is essentially assuring the he or she feels the same way. > > On the other hand, Japanese and Korean native speakers will respond to an English negative question in the opposite way from English speakers. > > Ex: > > English speaker: You don’t have any brothers or sisters, do you? > Korean speaker: Yes. (Meaning: “You’re correct. I don’t.”) I always advise Chinese people to always answer with a complete sentence because otherwise they are just confusing. In English and in Spanish it would be: - You haven’t had breakfast yet? - No (I have not had breakfast) In Chinese it would be “Yes” (your statement is correct, I have not had breakfast). So when I am speaking to Chinese people I never know if they are speaking correct English or “Chinglish” and I have to ask for clarification. Other languages use the same construction and that is the origin of the famous song [“Yes, we have no bananas”](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yes,_We_Have_No_Bananas). ---
**Author:** ![zagloba](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/z/977dab/32.png) [@zagloba](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/zagloba)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 8:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/48 "2008-11-24T20:00:29Z")
> [@Dr.Drake](#): > > Re: Polish — > > I’m confused. Are you saying the word which means the opposite of _yes_? Or are you saying a word which is a homonym of English _no_, but has a different meaning in Polish, like Russian ну (nu) or Yiddish _nu_? We’re talking about the Polish word spelled _no_ and pronounced very similarly to the English word spelled the same way. ---
**Author:** ![pulykamell](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/pulykamell/32/3166_2.png) [@pulykamell](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/pulykamell)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 8:04pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/49 "2008-11-24T20:04:28Z")
> [@Dr.Drake](#): > > Re: Polish — > > I’m confused. Are you saying the word which means the opposite of _yes_? Or are you saying a word which is a homonym of English _no_, but has a different meaning in Polish, like Russian ну (nu) or Yiddish _nu_? Sorry for the confusion. The opposite of _yes_ in Polish is _nie_. _No_ is a homonym (sort of) of the English _no_. I say sort of, because the Polish “o” sound is a little bit different than at least the American and British English long “o” sound, which is a diphthong. Your Russian and Yiddish examples are analagous. ---
**Author:** ![Quercus](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/q/7ab992/32.png) [@Quercus](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Quercus)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 8:06pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/50 "2008-11-24T20:06:59Z")
OK, so my understanding is that in Chinese and Welsh, a positive response to an ordinary question (“Is it raining?”) uses the verb (“Rains.” meaning, ‘yes it is raining’). So what about a negative response? ---
**Author:** ![Autolycus](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/22d042/32.png) [@Autolycus](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Autolycus)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 8:51pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/51 "2008-11-24T20:51:26Z")
> [@guizot](#): > > On the other hand, Japanese and Korean native speakers will respond to an English negative question in the opposite way from English speakers. > > Ex: > > English speaker: You don’t have any brothers or sisters, do you? > Korean speaker: Yes. (Meaning: “You’re correct. I don’t.”) Right, because for Japanese (and Korean AFAIK), a yes or no reply depends not on the grammar of the asked question but on the asker’s expectation. So, the same question asked in Japanese can be answered with either yes or no, and the yes or no can sometimes have the same meaning depending. I didn’t make that clear at all, so here’s an example. Did you eat my bacon? (expects that you did) - No, I did not. - Yes, I did That is pretty much like English, but with negative expectations, things get kinda weird. Did you eat my bacon? (expects that you didn’t) -No, I did -Yes, I did not. ---
**Author:** ![Dr.Drake](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/ad7895/32.png) [@Dr.Drake](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Dr.Drake)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 9:17pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/52 "2008-11-24T21:17:38Z")
Welsh: Ydy hi’n bwrw glaw? [is it raining? lit. is it (f.) throwing rain?] Ydy. [yes, lit. is] Nac ydy. [no, lit. not + is] Oedd hi’n bwrw glaw? [was it raining? lit. was it (f.) throwing rain?] Oedd. [yes, lit. was] Nac oedd. [No, lit. not + was] Bwriodd hi’r gath hefyd? [did she throw the cat as well?] Do. [Yes.] Naddo. [No.] Fy nghath i a fwriodd hi allan o’r ffenestr? [Was it my cat that she threw out the window?] Ie. [Yes.] Nage. [No.] ---
**Author:** ![sailor](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/a587f6/32.png) [@sailor](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/sailor)\ **Post date:** [November 24, 2008, 9:32pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/53 "2008-11-24T21:32:19Z")
I will add that in some telegraphic codes the word “YES” in English is abbreviated to “C” (Si). ---
**Author:** ![guizot](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/guizot/32/3636_2.png) [@guizot](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/guizot)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 1:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/54 "2008-11-25T01:54:07Z")
> [@Autolycus](#): > > Did you eat my bacon? (expects that you didn’t) > -No, I did > -Yes, I did not. This does happen, but I think a more common answer would be: –(Yes), actually I did. (I’m sorry. I didn’t think your bacon was so important to you.) or –No, of course not. (Why would you ever expect that?) ---
**Author:** ![Koxinga](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/4af34b/32.png) [@Koxinga](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Koxinga)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 2:18am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/55 "2008-11-25T02:18:48Z")
> [@Dr.Drake](#): > > Welsh: > > Ydy hi’n bwrw glaw? [is it raining? lit. is it (f.) throwing rain?] > > Ydy. [yes, lit. is] > Nac ydy. [no, lit. not + is] > > Oedd hi’n bwrw glaw? [was it raining? lit. was it (f.) throwing rain?] > > Oedd. [yes, lit. was] > Nac oedd. [No, lit. not + was] > > Bwriodd hi’r gath hefyd? [did she throw the cat as well?] > > Do. [Yes.] > Naddo. [No.] > > Fy nghath i a fwriodd hi allan o’r ffenestr? [Was it my cat that she threw out the window?] > > Ie. [Yes.] > Nage. [No.] Ph’nglui mglw’nafh cthulhu r’lyeh wgah’nagl fhtagn? ---
**Author:** ![Dr.Drake](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/ad7895/32.png) [@Dr.Drake](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Dr.Drake)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 3:07am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/56 "2008-11-25T03:07:51Z")
> [@Koxinga](#): > > Ph’nglui mglw’nafh cthulhu r’lyeh wgah’nagl fhtagn? I’m not a native speaker of Welsh, and I won’t claim any righteous indignation or anything, but I’d like to point out that Welsh speakers have genuinely suffered at the hands of English speakers for many hundreds of years. While this is largely political, some of the cultural oppression has been justified by the fact that Welsh looks and sounds odd to the English. The Lovecraft reference is cute, and I don’t want to hijack the thread or fight other people’s battles for them. I’ll just say that the spelling is a result of learning to write from the Romans and experiencing some sound changes over the centuries, exactly as happened with English. ---
**Author:** ![matt\_mcl](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/7ab992/32.png) [@matt\_mcl](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/matt_mcl)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 3:11am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/57 "2008-11-25T03:11:24Z")
> [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](#): > > The reason why you’ve not heard “si” used as an affirmative response to a negative question before may be because it’s very rarely used in Canada. I don’t know why (did the Canadian dialects of French derive from French dialects that _didn’t_ make this distinction?), because without it these questions are in fact harder to answer. It seems to me that we usually say “mais oui” for this. “Tu n’étais pas à la manif hier.” “Mais oui!” (You weren’t at the protest yesterday. Sure I was!) ---
**Author:** ![Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hypnagogic_jerk/32/4252_2.png) [@Hypnagogic\_Jerk](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hypnagogic_Jerk)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 3:26am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/58 "2008-11-25T03:26:38Z")
> [@matt\_mcl](#): > > It seems to me that we usually say “mais oui” for this. “Tu n’étais pas à la manif hier.” “Mais oui!” (You weren’t at the protest yesterday. Sure I was!) Yes, that’s possible, but I think I remember some confusion caused by trying to answer a negative question. ---
**Author:** ![seodoa](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/4af34b/32.png) [@seodoa](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/seodoa)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 3:32am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/59 "2008-11-25T03:32:44Z")
A few already mentioned Japanese and Korean’s peculiarities WRT yes/no questions. On top of that, I should add that Japanese has a few different words for “yes” depending on formality, familiarity, and politeness. The generic “hai” tends to be used more often in the indirect/formal style. “Ha” and “Ee” are more polite/reverent forms. “Un” is a very casual/direct form. But, of course, most languages make a distinction along these lines… “Yes” vs “Yup” or “Mhm” “Certainly” vs “You betcha” Oh, and the OP was more concerned with Romance languages anyway… ---
**Author:** ![Northern\_Piper](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/northern_piper/32/5304_2.png) [@Northern\_Piper](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Northern_Piper)\ **Post date:** [November 25, 2008, 9:10am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227/60 "2008-11-25T09:10:52Z")
[QUOTE=Wendell Wagner] A question like “Why does language A have a given grammatical, vocabulary, or phonological form?” is generally impossible to answer. [/QUOTE] I appreciate that languages aren’t designed, but my question was more aimed at the development of “si” in French. Is it possible to determine where it came from? These two posts suggest it has its origins in Latin, via the regionalism in medieval French dialects: > [@RealityChuck](#): > > French as a language mutated quite rapidly, and there were many subdialects with other words. > … > I see from Wikipedia that Medieval Latin had three words for “yes”: “oil,” “oc,” and “si.” That is certainly where the French “si” came from, though I’m not sure how. [QUOTE=Kizarvexius] I’m sure someone will be along to correct me shortly, but Latin uses both sic and ita to indicate an affirmative reply, even though neither word can really be translated to mean “yes.” A more exact translation would be “so” or “thus”. I have no idea what the contextual differences are between these words, however. [/QUOTE] So it’s possible to hypothesize that the evolution was something like “sic” =\> “si” as a regionalism for yes =\> “si” having a restricted use as a positive reply to a negative question. It’s interesting that Spanish, which uses “si” as “yes”, apparently doesn’t have a specific affirmative for a negative question. Perhaps Spanish didn’t have the initial variety of dialectical differences that medieval French did, and so settled on “si” as a general purpose affirmative? Does anyone know if Italian has a specific affirmation to a negative question? Italian uses “si” as the affirmative, doesn’t it? [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227.md?page=2) [Next page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-does-french-have-two-ways-to-say-yes-do-other-languages/474227.md?page=4)