Why is porn legal, but prostitution is not?

Here is the text of the case:

46 Cal. 3d 419; 758 P.2d 1128; 250 Cal. Rptr. 598; 1988 Cal. LEXIS 171; 15 Media L. Rep. 2072 (Emphasis added.)

It was too long for a single post. Here is the rest:

So the *Freeman *court’s holding is that Freeman didn’t violate California’s pandering statute because no evidence was introduced to show that the fees were paid “for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification.” That means justrob’s hypothetical misunderstands the case. If you’re paying someone for sexual arousal or gratificaiton–and I think most juries would find you are doing that at a bachelor party–*Freeman *does not help you.

By the way, California sought stay of the California Supreme Court’s decision in Freeman, which was denied by Justice O’Connor. In her opinion, she underscored the fact that the California court’s decision was based not on federal constitutional law, but on its reading of the pandering statute:

http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=us&vol=488&invol=1311 (Emphasis added.)

Here is a thread (possibly already linked above by someone else) in which we discussed *Freeman *: Why is porn production legal but prostitution illegal? - Factual Questions - Straight Dope Message Board

For me, this is the best part of the case:

:slight_smile:

There are x-rated movies where the producer is also a performer.

Thanks Gfactor. That sure is a lot of reading. I knew there was a reason I didn’t go into Law.

I think the bolded section certainly works against the hypothetical. Little Nemo has a point though.

There is a whole genre of movies where the one paying is also an actor. I’m sure their defense is that they are excercising their free speech rights but it would be pretty hard to argue that they were not paying fees and receiving sexual gratification.

p.s. Same here. :slight_smile:

I think Max Hardcore or Ed Powers would definitely lose the case if their only defense was based on Freeman.