Why is the fabric spelled cashmere and not Kashmir?

For pretty much the same reason we have Madras fabrics instead of Chennai fabrics. When the authority to name places was wrested away from the English, that had no effect on the things that the English took with them when they left.

In fairness, I think the K is just a standard established later for transliteration. I can’t see how things would be any different if they’d preferred K, and the standard later established was C. If there is one, I would be happy to learn

Actually, in this case, I think Kashmir has been spelled 'Kashmir’since before the British left. This is the earliest reference I can find, just three months after India’s independence - Text of Lord Mountbatten 's letter dated 27 October, 1947 to signify his acceptance of the Instrument of Accession signed by the Kashmir Maharaja https://www.mtholyoke.edu/acad/intrel/kasmount.htm

I don’t think the person you’re both nitpicking will be responding. :frowning:

He’s probably having an erudite conversation on the issue with Sir William Jones.

Oh crap. Did not know that.

Take comfort. Somewhere, a zombie is luxuriating in a cravat made from the finest cashmere. :smiley:

No doubt, Mountbatten was just being polite to the Maharaja, or not wishing to be seen a colonial lout, just as I would write Milano and Firenza if I were writing to an Italian friend about my proposed itinerary in his country. And, by 1947, many or the English in The Raj had probably already begun using some Indian spellings, like changing saree to sari…

:slight_smile:

Polycarp would have liked that one!

You could indeed have made it clearer, by actually using the correct word for that: syllabic. “Phonetic” means something quite different.

No. “Kashmir” has been the standard English transliteration for ages. Sir Frances Younghusband’s accounts of his travels in Kashmir, boringly entitled Kashmir were published in 1909. “Kashmir” is consistently used throughout. Sir Walter Lawrence published The Valley of Kashmir in 1895. The OED doesn’t include the names of countries, but it has Kashmir, meaning a native of Kashmir, with cites from 1880 and Kashmiri from 1882.

Up to about 1860, though Cashmere seems to have predominated as the English transliteration of the name. So the change probably happened between 1860 and 1880.

That may well be so, but bidysabba’s reference to the Mountbatten letter did not shed any light on that fact.

Me, I like damascene.

Bingo. It’s the same reason we usually see “Peking Duck” on the menu, and not “Beijing Duck”.

Which makes me wonder why we have Roma tomatos, but never mind.

:wink:

On the contrary, it makes it highly probable that the British government at least was already using the ‘Kashmir’ spelling before India got its independence. And it certainly sheds more light than your evidence free assertion that he was “no doubt” doing it to please the Maharaja of Kashmir.

Some of those may have reached English via Portuguese, a language in which K is very rare.

That’s certainly possible with Cochin, which was an early portugese base in India, but to the best of my knowledge, the Portugese had nothing to do with the remaining three.

No, not Bingo. In fact it has been conclusively shown that the mechanism for Cashmere/Kashmir has nothing to do with name changes that happened after the British left. The ‘Kashmir’ spelling had taken root well before an independent India was even a demand of the Indian National Congress.

From this wiki on the Hunterian transliteration system:

So, from that, I gather that the British Raj standardized on the Hunterian system in 1872, and from the article, it looks to me like Kashmir would be the proper Hunterian transliteration. Prior to 1872, the Raj (and before that, the East India Co.) appear to have haphazardly used either the Wilkins system or the “Dowler” system.