I’m seeing several points that I would think would be salient, but that seem to be conspicuously absent from most of the posts here.
First: There is much talk here about “landlords” vs “tenants” (or people who claim to be tenants), and question about tenants refusing to pay rent, or landlords trying to evict tenants without due process. Most of these posts seem to envision a non-resident landlord who did, or might have, rented out his unit to a tenant.
And there is talk here about the concern that willy-nilly evicting an alleged squatter leaves alleged squatter homeless. And there is occasional mention that the landlord is being deprived of the profits of his property.
WHAT about the resident homeowner, coming home from a weeks vacation in Elbonia, who finds a squatter in his home? That case has only been sporadically mentioned here. It’s NOT a matter of a landlord not getting his rent. It’s not a matter of the squatter being left homeless if he is evicted. It’s a matter of the RESIDENT HOMEOWNER being left homeless until the matter is resolved! What protection does the resident homeowner have against that? Not to mention (as has been mentioned here only sporadically) that the squatter may steal the homeowner’s stuff and strip the property.
Second: And what about the need to argue about whether there’s a lease? Generally (and always, if the landlord is a professional landlord), the lease is in writing, with the tenant having a copy. If the squatter claims he has a lease, shouldn’t the burden be on him to produce a copy of that lease immediately? Certainly, the homeowner can’t prove there isn’t a lease simply by failing to produce one. If my landlord tried to evict me, calling me a squatter, of course I could show my rental agreement.
That’s what written agreements are for. If I make a deal with my bank to borrow some money, I will have a written contract. If I get a cell-phone contract, I will have that (or know where to find it on-line, I suppose). If a dispute arises between any two parties over the terms of a contract, isn’t the party who can produce a copy going to win, against the party who can’t? And if a dispute arises over the very existence of a contract, isn’t it up to the party who claims the contract exists to produce a copy?
Now, true, informal landlords may rent out a house with no lease in writing. I myself lived in a rented house for TEN YEARS with no written contract whatever, and only the vaguest hint of even a verbal contract, with that tenancy even surviving two different owners, and all of it (mostly) amicably! But as this thread shows, that’s really a dumb thing for both the owner and tenant alike to do.