# Why is "why" one word instead of two? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [June 30, 2003, 12:12am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250 "2003-06-30T00:12:52Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 5\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![Mycroft\_Holmes](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/a5b964/32.png) [@Mycroft\_Holmes](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Mycroft_Holmes)\ **Post date:** [June 30, 2003, 2:47pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250/21 "2003-06-30T14:47:58Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Lodrain \* > \*\*I had no idea that _weshalb_ and _warum_ weren’t one-hundred-percent synonymous. Thank God I generally stick to _warum_ in conversation… > \*\* I guess the closest translation of _weshalb_ to English would be: “On what’s (or whose) behalf”, which comes pretty close to “from what cause”. The thing is, that _warum_ acts exactly like the English “why” (both meanings covered), so you can switch _weshalb_ for _warum_ in most cases. _Warum bist du zu spaet?_ and _Weshalb bist du zu spaet?_ both parse the same. Similarly, you can switch _warum_ and _wozu_: _Warum hast du angerufen?_ and _Wozu hast du angerufen?_ However _wozu_ and _wodurch_ parse differently: _Wozu hast du angerufen?_ and _Wodurch hast du angerufen?_ give completely different meanings. _Wozu hast du angerufen?_ can best be translated as “What did you call for?” and _Wodurch hast du angerufen?_ can best be translated as “What caused you to call?” _Weshalb hast du angerufen?_ can also best be translated as “What caused you to call?” ---
**Author:** ![Nils](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/n/d6d6ee/32.png) [@Nils](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Nils)\ **Post date:** [June 30, 2003, 2:48pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250/22 "2003-06-30T14:48:08Z")
…can mean, of course ---
**Author:** ![Mycroft\_Holmes](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/a5b964/32.png) [@Mycroft\_Holmes](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Mycroft_Holmes)\ **Post date:** [June 30, 2003, 2:54pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250/23 "2003-06-30T14:54:21Z")
Well, now I see that **Nils** has corrected my error. As he said: _wieso_, _weshalb_, and _warum_ are like the English “why”, while _wodurch_ and _wozu_ can be used to mean “from what cause” and “for what purpose”. Thanks **Nils**! I guess I should brush up on my German. All this Dutch (which is very simple in comparison) I’ve been speaking has corrupted me. 😃 ---
**Author:** ![pasunejen](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/p/58956e/32.png) [@pasunejen](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/pasunejen)\ **Post date:** [June 30, 2003, 3:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250/24 "2003-06-30T15:05:07Z")
It’s possible (I have nothing to back me up here but a somewhat shoddy knowledge of genderal trends in language change) that why initially had only the one meaning, and later took on the second meaning. My money would be on “from what cause” as the original, but that’s just a guess. ---
**Author:** ![Colibri](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/colibri/32/1841_2.png) [@Colibri](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Colibri)\ **Post date:** [June 30, 2003, 8:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250/25 "2003-06-30T20:03:58Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by BKABBY \* > \*\*Well, Spanish, for one. Por Que in spanish is the equivalent of Why, even though directly translated t would be “For What”. But, yeah, Spanish is one. \*\* Actually, Spanish _is_ one (although **BKABBY** misconstrued the question.) _Por que_ generally implies “from what cause.” In order to ask “for what purpose,” one would use _para que._ [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-is-why-one-word-instead-of-two/185250.md?page=1)