# Why isn't it **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [April 2, 2001, 6:32pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-isnt-it/60523 "2001-04-02T18:32:03Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 2\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![WordMan](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/w/e8c25b/32.png) [@WordMan](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/WordMan)\ **Post date:** [April 2, 2001, 6:32pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-isnt-it/60523/1 "2001-04-02T18:32:03Z")
This is one of those questions that I have never heard answered, yet I fear may be embarrassingly simple to explain: Barring alphabetical or pronunciation-related issues, why isn’t a place name the same everywhere? Please note, I am NOT referring to the whole “Germany” vs. “Deutschland” vs. “Allemagne” thing. (I read somewhere that words like “Deutschland” which are self-referential mean “the one land/people” while the others come from non-Deutschlanders and may translate roughtly to “foreign dogs” or something). What I am referring to is “Rome” vs. “Roma” - why the heck don’t we English-speakers call it Roma? We can pronounce it, spell it - what gives? Same thing for “London” - why do the French call it “Londres”, when they can spell and say London? Is there a historical precedent or tradition that hasn’t caught up with globalization? I want to liken it to someone named “Guillermo” who comes to the U.S. - if he wants to go by “Guillermo”, or “William” or “Billy” most folks will honor that request - why don’t we honor the fact that the Italians call it Roma and Firenza, etc…? Thanks! ---
**Author:** ![Chronos](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/chronos/32/134_2.png) [@Chronos](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Chronos)\ **Post date:** [April 2, 2001, 10:12pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/why-isnt-it/60523/2 "2001-04-02T22:12:12Z")
[Duplicate thread](http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?threadid=66026)