PPS I will answer in depth about John 1:1 soon. It’s the oldest Jesus-fraud i know…Old Greek had no article(the,an or a) So it becomes easy to claim the Word = God in modern languages. But think: It also says the Word was with God. What does with mean? (simple question no?) Further more some old translations solve this article problem by translating it “The Word was divine” (or a divine being)
It’s as if you’re not even bothering to read the VERY FIRST response to my post. Or maybe you don’t recognize what that person is saying.
The persecution complex you seem to suffer from needs work - there was no insult nor threat in that post. You should atleast wait until an insult or threat is implied.
Hint - disagreeing with you is neither. Saying you are wrong is neither.
Have a pleasant day.
Sorry, just made a mistake about John 1:1. Koine Greek had articles, but John **left **out the article when he wrote …and the word was god. (theos instead of ton theon)
My error, i should have left this issue for tomorrow. (tired)
Let’s stick to the simple question of whom Jesus is praying and begging to for now.
I’ll get on with the Logos issue tomorrow. Sorry.
Once you allow for even a single sentence of the Bible to be incorrect, you open a whole different can of worms. Why should 4th century authors be automatically wrong? And why should late 1st / early 2nd century authors be automatically correct?
It’s a question of preponderance of evidence. There are many manuscripts and codices that do not have these two verses, and they come from every major center of early Christianity. A single 4th century text, in Latin, referring to this passage does not have the weight or range to support its inclusion. After this one text we have no other until MS.61 from the late 15th century. Quoting from Bruce M. Metzger’s The Text of the New Testament: “This manuscript of the entire New Testament, dating from the late fifteenth or early sixteenth century, now at Trinity College, Dublin, has more importance historically than intrinsically. It is the first Greek manuscript discovered which contains the passage relating to the Three Heavenly Witnesses (1 John v.7-8). It was on the basis of this single, late witness that Erasmus was compelled to insert this certainly spurious passage into the text of 1 John. The manuscript, which is remarkably fresh and clean throughout (except for the two pages containing 1 John v. which are soiled from repeated examination of the passage), gives every appearance of having been produced expressly for the purpose of confuting Erasmus.”
One quick question: which Greek text are you using?
The standard answer is that during the period of his incarnation as a man, he has temporarily set aside much of his Godly nature. He has voluntarily descended to the mortal state. So much so, indeed, that he died, just as all mortals die.
Upon resurrection and rising from earth, he regained his rightful Godly status.
I don’t blame you if you don’t like the answer, but it is an answer. If you don’t like it, you’re free to believe differently. (I certainly do!)
I see your point. But did you stop to consider what you are trying to prove? You seem to be talking about the beliefs of very early Christians. If that’s the case, then you are absolutely correct. The earlier the text, the more trustworthy it is.
Yet the OP seem to be talking about the metaphysical truth. And in that case, either the entire Bible is a divine revelation (and all passages are equally true), or not (and all passages are equally suspect). After all, if people could interfere with the divine message in the 12th century, they could have done the same just as easily (or easier) in the 2nd century.
That’s just polytheism though, is it not? I think that would create a greater contradiction than any it resolves.
Probably Westcott-Hort or perhaps but less likely, Wilson’s Emphatic Diaglott.
That’s it … the Trinity IS polytheism! And, the Old Testament is full of seemingly contradictory polytheistic references and exclamations. If you read the translations plainly, without convoluted explanations and enigmatic mysteries, it clearly refers to a plurality of deities.
I use the example of Star Trek’s Q because it concisely clarifies a group of entities with enormous power and knowledge. If you read any of the previously posted Scriptural quotes and substitute the word “Q” for “God”, you’ll see that the contradictions go away and the whole thing makes sense.
Traditionalists, and really most Academics are hopelessly mired in conservative and derivative views, will insist that the Bible makes more sense full of mystery … it gives them something to pore over … grammar and syntax to dissect. Read the Scriptures with and open mind to at least three distinct personalities … separate beings of identical type … and it becomes obvious.
Yes, that would make it much clearer, except this scripture comes from the NI, and wasn’t added until the revision in 2011. You’ll also see their little footnote, which, had they of put that in the main text instead, it would have read like other translations. Prior to this revision, it read like this:
“No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known.”
I suppose the evangelicals which are behind the NI translation, decided it wanted this scripture as well as others to be a bit more clear that Jesus was God, so decided to do some creative translating of their own, all guided by the Holy Spirit, of course.
What I want is a text that is as close as possible to the original as can reasonably be. Additions to the text by well-meaning redactors over the course of the centuries only cast doubt on the 96%+ of the text that is known to be authentic. The idea that it’s all or nothing has never been a convincing one for me, and has been held in suspicion by a significant number of scholars since the formation of the NT.
No, it’s definitely not. You may argue that the Bible contains references that sugest or support polytheism (and especially so if the Trinity doctrine is false), but the doctrine of the Trinity itself is not polytheism - it’s a means (to whatever degree successful) of trying to resolve the person and nature of God in the Bible explicitly avoiding polytheism.
There’s your problem … I’m referring to the Trinity, not the Trinity Doctrine. I have limited interest in researching and debating Canon. I’m far more concerned with obvious Scriptural references that may be interpreted in ways that may fly in the face of Church dogma. My position is that the Truth in the Scriptures has been obscured by Men, to service their own agendas, and I maintain that many examples of seemingly confusing and contradictory passages can be clearly understood, but we must first ignore the spin put on them over these many centuries.
Oh, OK.
I’m not sure that really does make things more consistent - but I don’t really see how we can debate it anyway.
But it’s sort of doing that be decree. God consists of three persons – but, no, wait, not really. There are three persons, but this doesn’t mean polytheism, because we say so.
I do take some comfort from the “It’s a mystery you can’t understand” idea, because that allows the believer to walk away from any debate without either declaring victory or defeat. “It’s three, except it’s one, and neither of us really understands it.” It’s a little like saying, “Shall we agree to disagree?” Might as well, since no resolution is possible.
I also take some comfort from the “Triple Point of Water” metaphor. Ice is different from Steam, and both are different from liquid water – but all are really the same “substance,” and there is one unique point on the temperature/pressure scale where they co-exist. As far as Trinitarianism goes, that’s probably the best we’re ever going to get.
Thank you Trinopus, for your answer to the question of whom Jesus is praying and begging to.
As I expected most people don’t want to touch this one so yeah, i’m happy enough you bothered.
I think this argument is proof enough by itself since they are Christ’s own words to *another person *and in deference and obediance.
It’s so telling that i can only wonder why anyone would totally ignore this. Same as with when Jesus is dying and asks God “why have you abandonded me?”. (!)
It staggers my mind people can read that without thinking or hearing the proverbial alarm bells. That point being made i’ll make another one today. Probably my final arguments on this topic.
I’ll just stick to the bible. I value the bible as the highest evidence or judge of itself. Opinions of philosophers, theologists, bible critics, clerics ancient and modern and of course “traditions” don’t really mean anything to me. Please forgive me for not engaging arguments that have to do with those views. I can not rate them.
Today’s point: The Bible tells of Christ* sitting at God’s right hand in several verses and also shows the Christ being ***subordinate to God.***I also find this ultimate proof as the argument that Christ became part of a unified being is totally destroyed.
Here goes:
**Colossians 3:1 **If then you have been raised with Christ, seek the things that are above, where Christ is, seated at the right hand of God. English Standard Version
John 17:5 “So now you, Father, glorify me **alongside yourself **with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.” (in line with Col 1:15-17)
How can Jesus be alongside God if he is God? Also note that here Jesus himself says he was alongside God before the world was, as in John 1:1 “the Word was with God”
1 Peter 1:3 “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! By his great mercy he has given us a new birth into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,” New Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition
Can God have a God??!! Anyone feel free to explain.
John 20:17 “Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.” King James Version
So God ascends to his God? To his father; the same person who is Father and God to us humans?! Feel free to explain.
Acts 7:55 “But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God,” American Standard Version
Note that all parts of the trinity-concept are mentioned here and are not one! The Spirit is not in heaven, nor a person, nor seen but inside Stephanus like a force and Jesus again is at the right hand of God.)
How God can stand at the right hand of God?
Mark 13:32 “Now concerning that day or hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven nor the Son—except the Father.” Holman Standard Christian Bible
If Jesus is God or part of a trinity how can he not even know this? (The Holy Spirit isn’t even mentioned as it’s obviously not a person but a force.)
**Matthew 20:23 ** "He said to them, “My cup you will drink, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.” " Mounce Reverse Interlinear New Testament
If Jesus is God or part of God or even equal to God how can he say he can’t make that decision?
John 14:28 " You heard me say to you, ‘I am leaving, but I will come back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father; for he is greater than I. " Good News Translation
If Jesus is God, who is greater than God??!
1 Corinthians 15:24,27 and 28 New Revised Standard Catholic Version
24: Then comes the end, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father, after he has destroyed every ruler and every authority and power.
Christ* hands over the kingdom to his father?? If they are part of one being how can he hand over anything at all??? Can you hand over something to yourself?
27: “For “God has put all things in subjection under his feet.” But when it says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is plain that this does not include the one who put all things in subjection under him.”
Clear distinction about who’s in charge and who awards position.
28:When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, so that God may be all in all.
Again Christ subjecting himself to God, a totally separate person. Can you submit yourself to yourself?! If Christ is God how can he submit to God?
**1 John 5:5 **“Who is the one that conquers the world but he who has faith that Jesus is the Son of God?” (quite plain and simple)
Revelation 1:1 “A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent forth his angel and presented [it] in signs through him to his slave John”
How can God give Jesus Christ a revelation if Jesus is God? This was written around 98 AD decades after Jesus’ ascension.
I could go on with verses like these for a few more hours. But the bible is clear enough. Try any bundle of translations you like, some people just don’t respect the bible but put the words of man above those of God.
-Jesus Christ- *Mark 7:6-9*
Thanks for joining,
Ruben
PS The first triad or trinity is said to originate with Nimrod who had sex with Semiramis, his own mother, whom gave birth to Tammuz. Thus Nimrod was both father and son. After his death Nimrod and later Tammuz and Semiramis were deified and a cult started wich carried over into many empires and nations and the names of this triad of “gods” simply changed over the years.
Look it up if you want, but this is “red pill” stuff. It will lead you to recognise Babylonian symbols and ceremonies in unexpected places… There’s a hidden reason some people were fierce advocates of trinity and were willing to persecute and kill those that didn’t accept it. Like The Who sang: Meet the new boss…
*Christ or Khristos, the Greek word for the Hebrew Messiah means annointed or annointed king
What about angels? I guess it depend on one’s definition of a god, but they seem to rise to the level of at least demi-god compared to us mere mortals.