“They concluded” is important here. Every cite I have given you from people who have been waterboarded and/or engaged in waterboarding are unanimous in their opinion that waterboarding = torture. Historically it has been considered torture going back hundreds of years. The US has cited it as torture in the past. So how did the lawyers arrive at this conclusion?
Note that one of the main points in, at the least, having these attorneys brought before their state Bar Associations for possible sanctions is that they neglected to cite relevant precedent from previous court cases dealing with this subject. You may argue those precedents are substantively different (a whole new debate in itself) but it is still incumbent upon those attorneys to have cited them and argue why they are not relevant.
They did not do that. They avoided the subject and rather than say why waterboarding is not torture they raised the bar overall on what is torture (legally). They moved it to an absurd level. A level that has been discredited completely and since reversed. A level that is having prosecutors give them a serious look as criminals and at the least may get them sanctioned/disbarred for their opinions because they were so egregiously wrong.
In short, they had a preconceived goal and pulled their professional legal analysis out of their collective asses to match that goal. They redefined the law to suit their purpose when there was no basis for it in reality.
They were redefining it. See just above.
“High value” is meaningless. Torture, as a crime, makes no distinction for how important a given prisoner may be.
See this recent thread: Torture is Most Likely Effective
In it we thoroughly debunk the notion that torture is useful as a means of getting someone to provide useful information. More, this is not something we just came up with here but is well known to professional interrogators. In fact, the FBI left Guantanamo because once the CIA started “enhanced interrogation” techniques their sources were ruined as possible information sources (FBI was more than a little pissed about that).
This is not some read between the lines thing or kinda/sorta thing. It is proven and well known among those who make a career out of getting people to provide useful information.
So again, who was the DoJ to decide differently? How did they make this determination?
In a very, very real sense they made this country LESS safe because of their actions (not being rhetorical on that…we really are less safe for it).