y^2=x vs y=sqrt(x). Is they is or is they ain't the same thing.

Well, to be fair, the fact that we assume it should be a function from R to R is kind of arbitrary and biased too. Admittedly for good reason, since R is kind of nice to work in, but still arbitrary. There’s no reason it can’t be a non-function mapping to some finite deterministic set of values in R; or even a function from R to some space I’ll randomly call P (for pair!), which I’ll define as { (x,y) | x,y in R; y = -x}. So sqrt(0) uniquely maps to (0,0) and sqrt(1) uniquely maps to (1,-1) and so on.

Or a function from positive reals to positive reals…

Speaking of which, 1 doesn’t have just 2 square roots. It has 4… in the split-complex numbers. Or in the integers modulo 8. Of course, it has just 1 in the positive reals. (While a value like 3 also has 2 square roots in the reals, 4 in the split-complex numbers, and 1 in the positive reals, but 0 in the integers modulo 8 or in the rationals).

Everything is always context-dependent.

(And for me… Dinah Washington.)

The choice looks a lot less arbitrary when you look at the general power equation x[sup]n[/sup] = k. In that case, the roots are laid out in the complex plane on the vertices of a regular polygon, and the only place where you’ll always find one is on the positive real line. That’s why we take the positive solution to be the principal root.

That is, if k is itself a positive real. It’s not well-defined to say which of the square roots of -1 is the principle one. Or rather, we claim without any particular support that one of them is the principle one, and use that in all of our other definitions.