To all:
The point of this thread, in case it was not obvious, is this…
Often, during a discussion of faith vs. logic, a theist will point out what they feel is a logical inconsistency with an atheist’s assertion that logic is superior to faith, to wit, that the atheist’s reliance on logic is itself dependent on “faith” in various fundamental scientific principles. The theist will then claim that the atheist therefore has no right to question the theist’s faith.
I’m happy to acknowledge that my worldview is indeed based on some fundamental assumptions that cannot be definitively proven, and I’m willing to concede that my acceptance of these assumptions could be considered “faith” insofar as I let them guide my actions and expectations.
However, my point is that having “faith” in fundamental scientific principles such as causality, materiality, and uniformity actually allows me to make verifiable predictions about the world. Religious faith, on the other hand, in unable to do the same. “If I pray hard enough, I will be healed. I wasn’t healed. Oh well, I guess it wasn’t God’s will that I be healed, even though he said that anybody who asks will receive.” “If you deny God’s word, you will be smitten. Hmmmm… you actually seem to be prospering nicely. Oh well, I guess you will be smitten in the next life.”
In other words, yes, it can be said that even an atheist has “faith” in some things. But so what? Instead of playing semantic games and making subtle distinctions between “faith” and “assumptions,” I’d rather just argue that my “faith” is at least reasonable.
Regards,
Barry