Right the last point on the both line segments, the infinite point at the end of both line segment A and B? Can I not walk from one end of the line segment to the other?
Do I not pass an infinite number of 0s on top and 9s on the bottom by time I reach the end of the line.
Each half way point represents a number on top and bottom.
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 +… + 1/infinity = 1 This is the classic Limit soultion to Zeno’s paradox? Is there not an infinite number of points here?
You did not try to really understand my post. The Line segment is 1 mile (not infinite) so I can reach the end as people aften do go for walks. But we all know you must always go halfway first then half of the reaminder and so on…
This is an infinite series represented by
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + … + 1/infinity = 1
In both distance and time I have taveled:
I have reached an infinite number of points, yes or no?
You said:
Your logic is flawed because you still fail to understand what infinity means. – this is a useless counter, means nothing… except your opinon of my knowledge. Nothing about the actual logic I stated.
Let’s put a little ‘9’ at each halfway mark. There will still be an infinite number of them. As I said before, YOU NEVER GET TO POINT B EXCEPT AT INFINITY. —
How did I not reach an infinite number of points on my walk?
It’s not my fault if you don’t read my posts now is it? – again usless counter statement.
You are solving Zeno by appealing to motion in the physical world - yet you are claiming that you physically were able to generate the labelled points - and you do have to label them all because you claim that the “last” point is the one that matters. You are thus confusing together an appeal to physical motion with an infinite process. But you need to provide a solution to Zeno in the abstract that allows your labelling to work. Placing the intervals in a one to one relationship with the fractions of time needed to label them is the usual solution - but you need to then show that time reaches the end - thus you are trying to prove something by assuming its converse. Why should the time fractions reach the end point and not the fractional distances? Either place both or neither in the physical world - you can’t place one in the physical and the other in the abstract.
I already stated twice … once in the problem and aftwards. It is not really neccessary to label them. We already knwo what they should be. I really just need to reach the last one.
Silly boy thinks he’s turning an example I used to try to help him back on me. He doesn’t realize whatever kind of infinity we use to map this out, it’s all the same.
I have put forth I do not need to label them, we know what they should be labeled they are the same all the way to the end. In fact the whole argument rests on simple reaching the end of an infinite series of points. which I will associate with numerals, but there is no need to physically label them, why should there be?
The fact that you could even say something like “reaching the end of and infinite series” with a straight face, is really . . . I don’t even know what to say. :smack:
Thank you. So we agree as I moved from the start of my walk to the end, I did indeed reach an infinit number of points each 1/2 the distance of the previous?