In another thread, FriendOfGod asked me to elaborate on why I thought the universe was different than it would be if the traditional Judeo-Christian god existed.
I believe that this traditional god has at least the following attributes:
omnipotence - anything that can be done, this being can do
omniscience - anything that can be known, this being can know
omnibenevolent - any good that this being is able to do will be done
When I say God in this post, I am refering to a being with these attributes.
Here are some reasons why I don’t believe in this god.
The existence of suffering
If God exists, then he wants to stop all suffering.
If God exists, then he knows how to stop all suffering.
If God exists, then he is able to stop all suffering.
(These are simply from the three attributes assigned to God)
Therefore, if God exists, suffering cannot exist.
However, suffering does exist.
Therefore, God does not exist.
There are several objections to this. One, possibly the least common, is that suffering does not exist, and that it is merely an illusion. Personally, I find such an opinion highly deluded.
More common objections involve freewill and some form of “greater good”.
Greater good:
Suffering exists because it is necessary to create a good that is greater than the bad of the suffering. For instance, a parent might punish a child (making the child suffer) in order to teach the child a valuable lesson.
Response:
#1: Since God would be omnipotent, why would he be forced to create a small amount of suffering in order to create a large “good”? Why not create the large good right away?
#2: Since God would be omnibenevolent, why not simply ask someone if they want to suffer through a small amount of suffering in order to get some good? Would that not be much more “good” than merely doing so against their will?
#3: There may be examples of some small suffering leading to a greater good. However, if God exists, then all suffering must lead to a greater good. This does not at all appear to be the case. To use a much overused example: What good did the Holocaust lead to that was greater than the suffering it caused? This good must also not be obtainable in any other fashion than by the suffering of the Holocaust. I can’t see any resolution to this other than to accept that God does not exist.
Freewill:
God gave humans freewill. Humans’ use of their freewill leads to suffering.
Response:
#1: This does not explain how suffering arises from natural disasters, which are not due to human freewill. Some claim that such disasters are the results of demons. There is not only no evidence for this (as well as plenty of evidence of natural causes of natural disasters) but it fails as an explanation because God is omnipotent. Why couldn’t God stop the demons?
#2: It is possible to have freewill without any suffering. For example, I can choose to kill someone, but if I’m restrained from doing so (by, perhaps, being locked in a jail cell at the time) no murder occurs. I have freely chosen to do something, so my freewill is preserved. However, any suffering my actions would have caused did not come about because I was not allowed to act on my freewill. Why couldn’t God create a world where everyone is free to choose whatever they want, but everyone was unable to act on any actions they chose if those actions would cause suffering?
The existence of non-believers
If someone does not believe in God, they go to Hell. (or are in some way punished or given a fate less kind than that of believers).
God, being omnibenevolent, wants everyone to believe in him and therefore avoid Hell.
God, being omnipotent, has the ability to persuade everyone to believe in him.
God, being omniscient, knows how to make everyone believe in him.
Therefore, if God exists, then everyone believes in him.
However, there are many people who do not believe in God.
Therefore, God does not exist.
Freewill is again often used as a defense. Two other objections (that it is the work of Satan, and that God works in mysterious ways) I will address near the end of my post.
Freewill:
God gave freewill to humans. They can decide not to believe in him if they wish. To prove himself to everyone, God would have to take away their freewill, because they would no longer have a choice whether or not to believe in him.
Response:
#1: Showing up on someone’s doorstep (or otherwise providing strong evidence) to prove that I exist does not remove their freewill. Even if it did, why is this a bad thing compared to an eternity of suffering in Hell? Wouldn’t such a thing be an example of a small amount of suffering for a greater good?
#2: I don’t think that a sound deductive argument removes people’s freewill. It simply gives them a darned good reason to believe in the conclusion. Why, then, wouldn’t God provide a nice deductive argument for his existence?
#3: Why couldn’t God create a universe where people are born knowing him, as some sort of instinct that can’t be changed? Why does this violate freewill more than any other instinct or inate drive that humans have? In other words: we don’t have perfect freewill as it is.
Lack of complete, obvious, and objective moral rules
Objective morality exists.
If God exists, then he would do everything he can to promote good.
If humans are given a clear set of objective moral rules, then more humans would do good than if no such rules were known.
Therefore, God would want to give everyone knowledge of such a set of moral rules.
However, not everyone has such knowledge.
Therefore, God does not exist.
Common objections are that there are indeed well known objective moral rules and that such a thing would violate freewill.
Such rules exist:
There are some moral rules that nearly every culture (if not every culture) agrees on. For instance, most culutures have a form of the “Golden Rule”: do not do to others what you would not want done to you. Or, more specifically, “Don’t murder”.
Response:
#1: Even if every culture on the planet has agreed upon all moral rules, that doesn’t solve the problem. If there exists any person who does not know of those rules, the problem still stands. Have there been, through the course of human history, people who did not have knowledge of a system of objective moral rules? I think the answer is undoubtedly “yes”.
#2: There are many rules that are not agreed upon. These rules merely muddy the moral waters, so to speak. Why would God allow such a thing to occur?
The Existence of Freewill
If God exists, he knows for certain what will happen in the future.
Therefore, the future can be known for certain.
If the future can be known for certain, then the future is predetermined.
If the future is predetermined, then freewill does not exist.
However, freewill exists.
Therefore, God does not exist.
I have not heard many objections to this type of argument, although some undoubtedly exist. I know that freewill hasn’t exactly been “proven”, but I think it’s a safe assumption in the current topic. Anyone who wants to respond with a critique, please do!
Standard Objections:
Satan is responsible.
This would mean that God is not able to stop Satan if he wants to. This would mean an omnipotent God doesn’t exist.
God works in mysterious ways
This is merely a cop out, not an explanation. Sure, there might be an explanation that we don’t know of, but why on earth should we just assume that there is?
Okay, this turned out much longer than I expected. Everyone feel free to comment and critique.