I’m no economist. I can barely remember the Econ 101 course I took many years ago in college. I’ve read a few books in an effort to understand more, and I’ve made a point to read books by economists with different points of view (Krugman and Sowell, for instance).
So here’s my question.
Is this transaction (described below) inherently inflationary?
I need a new pair of prescription eyeglasses. I have vision care insurance, provided as a benefit by my employer, which I can use at participating optometrist/optician businesses. The insurance company has certain allowances for frames, and for lenses, and for the eye examination. If the cost of what I purchase exceeds those allowances, I pay the difference.
I have a local place that I like. They accept my insurance. The optometrist seems to know what he’s doing, and he has prescribed lenses for me that really help my vision. And the prescription is a bit complicated, so I’d rather not go somewhere new.
So, the frames that I prefer (and have been wearing for over twenty years) cost about $90 online. I can buy them online and bring them to my optometrist, and they will fit prescription lenses.
To purchase these frames through my optometrist would cost about $130. In other words, they charge about $40 more than the online seller.
My insurance company will only pay out to one of their participating optometrists. Let’s say that their frame allowance is $110 (I actually can’t remember what it is, but I’m in the ballpark).
So, my choices are (a) pay $90 out of pocket, or (b) purchase the frames through my optometrist and pay the $20 difference between the insurance company’s allowance and the retail price. Obviously this costs me only $20 rather than $90, so that’s the way I’ll go.
But that means that $40 has been put into the economy for no additional value. No more frames were manufactured. I bought a fungible thing (the frames) from one place rather than another. Seems like everyone is happy (except the online retailer). The insurance company is presumably profitable with their fee and allowance setup. The optometrist has made a profit (their markup) on the frames. I’ve paid considerably less for my frames than I would have without the insurance.
But it seems like it’s just a case of the optometrist jacking up their price because they can, because insurance obscures the cost from the end user. More money has been spent. No value has been created.
Is this a (partial) cause of inflation?