I certainly do not want to cheat in any sense of the word. Of course I also do not want to pay a commission if I don’t have to. I am just confused about using a realtor with a private sale, esp. were we did most of the work.
The only reason we engaged our realtor is: We are looking to move quite far from where we are. We found this place ourselves, as well as a few others - before ever meeting our realtor. We planned a trip to the area and needed someone to set up visits to each. A friend hooked us up with this guy - and he made the arrangements for us. We saw each of the places we wanted to, and one more thrown in. (side note: he did no research on the places we wanted to see and could answer no questions. The additional place he showed us was nothing like what we wanted - we never spoke to him beforehand, so how could he know what we were looking for?)
This may seem to be branching into IMHO territory. The factual question I have is based on this: If my realtor (buyer) works with your realtor (seller), each gets a commission that comes out of the final asking price - in other words the seller pays both commissions. If my realtor (buyer) works directly with you, who pays my realtor. It must be me. This makes sense on one hand, but also doesn’t.
Here’s why it doesn’t make sense (probably because I’m missing something). Forget the details of this purchase. Let’s say the deal was this:
Us: “Mr. Realtor, please find us some houses to consider, then help us with the offer/negotiations when we pick one.”
Realtor: “On it. And don’t worry about paying me. The seller does that.”
Under that arrangement (my understanding of the “typical case”) my realtor will likely never bring us to private sales knowing we won’t want to be the ones who pay his commission. But as a buyer, I wanna see those houses too.
Which leads me to the question: if I then find a private sale myself, am I obliged to pay out of my pocket the commission? If so, then that’s weird. If you do your job I don’t pay you (the seller does), but if I do that part of your job, I pay you (the seller doesn’t).
Our situation doesn’t exactly fit this typical case, but close enough. We found the listing before meeting the realtor and asked him to facilitate viewing and negotiation (language parsing aside). We then found a private listing (he didn’t) that happens to be the same place. Even if the language said, “you’re our guy until April” and even if the private listing was some other place, it feels weird to pay him - just as it would in the typical case.
Do you see my confusion, and is there a way to clear it up?