"A well regulated militia"

I’m falling hopelessly behind in this conversation, but…

OK I see where we miscommunicated. I was not arguing that the 2A was about militias … I was responding directly to a question about what “well-regulated” meant, and was pointing out that it had nothing to do with governmental oversight.

I was not saying that was the only circumstance a militia was allowed; rather that it was one of the reasons why it was allowed, and that militia as they knew it was something outside governmental control. I suggested that some (not I) might make the case, as it appears you are, that such militias are what the FF had in mind. What I was getting at was that even if that is the case, to be consistient with the militias of the American Colonies, such militias must be free of governmental control: i.e. much more like the Michigan Militia or even the local gun club than the National Guard.

IMO, As others have pointed out, the first clause is naming the most compelling political reason for the right listed in the second clause. As UncleBeer has said, this conversation is only possible if we ignore the copious explanatory writings of the founding fathers. I’ve never, ever heard anyone make a constitutional gun control argument based on anyhing other than that half-sentence.
As to why self-defense and hunting were not listed … ask yourself how you’d feel if Bush announced that he was supporting a law guaranteeing the right for people to go to any church they want. I know I’d be pissed off at his fatuousness, because A) I already have that right and no one else was even considering taking it away and B) the fact the he even suggested it implies that he thought the right wasn’t already obvious, and that would scare me.

I submit that in a country where most people were rural farmers and where there was not a single policeman on the continent, it would have been the height of arrogance (and political suicide) to suggest they were even considering taking away the tool many people depended on for food and safety.

[edited per poster’s req. --Gaudere]

oops… mods, could you delete eveything after “safety”? Didn’t preview and accicntally reposted quoted material w/o attribution.

That link and that claim are every bit as misleading as when you posted it last month. The “ninety-two opinions issued by the Supreme Court” include a large number of concurring and dissenting opinions that in no was can be attributed to “the Supreme Court.” Nearly all of the rest do nothing more than mention the Second Amendment in passing. None of them decide the collective right vs. individual right controversy, though, of course, U.S. v. Miller squarely holds that the “militia” clause does implicate the scope of the right guaranteed by the “people” clause (i.e., it’s gotta be a weapon suitable for militia use before it’s eligible for any protection under the Second Amendment).

A quick look at the militia clause of the Constitution shows this to be false. The central government was specifically empowered… “To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress”.

States were left with the right to name the officers to lead in the manner prescribed by Congress but there is no doubt about who has the power to regulate the militia.

Those aren’t three of the main authors of the Constitution or the Bill of Rights. Madison certainly qualifies on both counts but not the other 2. Hamilton and Jay took executive and judicial positions respectively in the new government. They weren’t in Congress to help draft the first amendments nor was Jay even a member of the federal convention which wrote the Constitution. Hamilton was there off and on but wasn’t a player. Arguably no one else did more to make the federal convention happen or shape the subsequent interpretation of the document it produced but he did little to shape the wording of the Constitution. In his 372 page work Alexander Hamilton and the Constitution Clinton Rossiter covers the convention in only six and a half pages and concludes with, “Hamilton’s reputation as constitutionalist might be higher today if he, like Adams, Jefferson, and Jay, had been prevented by destiny from being in Philadelphia at all.”

I make no claim to have read all of the Federalist but am I unaware of any discussion of the right to bear arms. How about citing chapter and verse so we can see for ourselves? I guarantee none of the letters refers to the 2nd Amendment because they were released between Oct 27, 1787 and Aug 16, 1788. IOW- before the First Congress.

I’m doing nothing of the kind. Where on Earth did you get that idea?

Again, I disagree. My reading of the sentence is that the second half is contingent upon the first half. Your reading renders the first half irrelevant. I don’t think there’s much point in continuing this discussion, since we obviously have a fundamental difference of opinion as to how to interpret the English language.

That’s not what UncleBeer said. He said:

And I’m afraid I don’t understand the point here. The Bill of Rights contains absolute protections for citizens, not just protections against federal actions. Freedom of speech cannot be curtailed by state or federal government. Yet the authors didn’t feel any need to qualify that amendment, nor provide “examples” of why free speech is important.

If I understand the argument several of you are making, you’re saying that the 2nd Amendment refers to militias merely because it’s an example of a reason to have a gun. But if other reasons were considered equally or more important, why on Earth wouldn’t they have been mentioned as well?

Ignoring the snideness of that question - Yeah, but that cuts both ways. As Cecil said, it’s no model of clarity. If they were hell-bent on protecting the right to individual self-defense, “how hard would it have been to say so?” The Second Amendment could have been written more clearly, but it wasn’t. You can’t use that fact only to support your side of the argument.

According to what 2sense has just posted, UncleBeer appears to be seriously in error as to who wrote the Bill of Rights. As I said before, the founding fathers were not a monolithic entity of one mind on every issue. I think there’s a certian tendency for blogs to selectively pick quotations that support the pro-gun view, and pretend that such a view was unanimous.

Really? I have.

Now you’re getting absurd. You’re saying that they didn’t mention self-defense or hunting out of fear of people being offended because it was “obvious”? Do you have any kind of cite for this?

Again, you are conflating the idea of “not constitutionally protected”, with the idea of “banned”. A farmer doesn’t have a constitutional right to a plow; that doesn’t mean the government is taking away farmers’ plows. Not sure how many times I’m going to have to make the same point here.

Horsemuffins. I in no way made any inferences about those opinions. I merely said the Supreme Court has issued 92 opinions which specifically mention the second amendment in refutation of the prior claim that the Supreme Court has been largely silent on the 2nd amendment. What’s misleading about that? I made no qualitative judgments about the nature of those opinions as you are suggesting. They’re all right there in that book. Word for word.

Your claim that opinions published by members of the Supreme Court “can in no way be attributed to the Supreme Court” is wholly laughable. Are you seriously making the contention that dissents and concurrences written by the Justices of the Supreme Court in the execution of their office aren’t attributable to the Supreme Court? They are routinely cited in arguments before the Supreme Court and all other courts; they’re acceptable as citations in thousands of arguments before courts up and down the entire hierarchy of the judicial branch. If these opinions aren’t attributable to the Supreme Court, then, to who, or what, are they attributable? These nine guys in robes aren’t writing their legal opinions while teaching nights classes at your local community college. They’re writing them as members of the Supreme Court to address issues they believe need to be stressed that often are ignored, or not brought out in full detail, in the majority opinion.

Here’s what I said about that book for your convenience (url tags fixed herein):

See? Not a single damned word about the nature of those SC opinions. Just that they exist.

Federalist #46 by James Madison published in the New York Packet on January 29, 1788 says:

I have italicized the portions where Madison is talking about an armed citizenry, a militia. He believes it will be comprised of 500,000 men and their arms and that this militia will act as a counterforce against a federal standing army in the event that the federal government is usurped by tyrants. The underlined portion within the italics is where Madison describes the nature of the arms to be used by the militia. He clearly states that “The People” are armed. And I think it highly unlikely that Madison believed the several states would have the financial ability, or the manufacturing capacity, to provide arms for the 500,000 men of this militia.

This passage is the very foundation of the second amendment. First we can see Madison’s concerns that a state militia is necessary to ensure the federal government doesn’t become despotic and use any standing army which may exist to further that cause. That’s the nature of the first phrase in the second amendment. The second portion of that amendment concerns the nature of the ownership of the arms to be used by the militia; those arms must have been the property of the citizens as there is simply no other source for them and the states would have been totally unable to procure such a mass of weapons. Those arms had to be owned and provided by “The People.”

There is also Federalist #29, authored again by Madison and published in the Daily Advertiser on Jan 10, 1788. I quote this portion:

The first paragraph outlines Madison’s concerns about a federal standing army and how that could be manipulated. Obviously, such an aggregation of men is anathema to him, but he allows that it could happen. The second paragraph describes the hardships to the public as a whole of maintaining a well-regulated militia as a counterforce to the federal army (I have underlined that specific passage.) I have italicized the portions of the second paragraph where Madison tells us of more reasonable expectations of the counterforce. You will note that he recommends that the people at large be properly armed and equipped. There’s no mention of the source of these arms and equipment, but since the states didn’t have stockpiles of arms at the time, one must assume that the arms were to be provided by “The People At Large.” Again, that is the only possible source of a large number of arms at that time. The financial and manufacturing resources to produce them as quickly as needed simply didn’t exist at that moment in history.

In the third paragraph, I have italicized the closing sentences. This passage amplifies the make-up of Madison’s recommended militia. It can in no way be interpreted to mean anything other than that private citizens, skilled in the use of their own arms, were to form the body of this force. I should also note that Madison, given that a standing army was anathema to him, intended that armed private citizens would not only provide a force countervailing a standing army gone wrong, but were actually intended to provide for the common defense against outside aggressors. That what he’s saying in the first portion(s) of the third paragraph.

The Federalist, as collected and published by John Jay, may be found here in its entirety:
http://www.foundingfathers.info/federalistpapers/

That’s right. The information I posted earlier is in error. My apologies for any confusion it has caused, Thanks, 2sense, for giving us the correct information.

Oh yeah. We also have Madison’s proposed Bill of Rights, dated June 8, 1789:

Here we can see some of the actual language from which the 2nd amendment was drawn. This single statement alone is more than ample evidence that it was private citizens who were intended by him to keep the right to own arms. Note the confusing commas in the 2nd amendment, as it stands now, was originally a semi=colon, delineating an idea that stands on its own with no modifying clause.

http://www.federalist.com/histdocs/madamend.htm

It is not irrelevant at all. It gives a justification that will always be true, in case anyone has any doubts that guns are only meant for hunting for food (which supermarkets render irrelevant), or for target shooting (which could be banned like any dangerous entertainment).

Which, as ever, works against both of us.

You realize my beef is with your word, “obvious”, right? I could give a shit if you think the second amendment is really about sausages.

It is the example. But it is not an exhaustive list of examples.

As you said, it is “obvious”.

I don’t believe I’m using ambiguity to support my argument, but an appreciation of historical context in order to interpret an ambiguous phrase. I guess that’s not obvious.

Uttering the words “the Second Amendment” says nothing whatsoever about the Second Amendment. Most of those opinions do nothing more than that. It is therefore highly misleading to cite them as evidence that the Court has been profuse in its explication of the Second Amendment.

Darn straight. Look at the header to every Supreme Court opinion. It will say something like this one, from Monday’s case on the Pledge of Allegiance:

Only a majority opinion is attributable to the Supreme Court. Concurrences and dissents–i.e., opinions that were rejected by the Court–are attributable only to their authors and those justices, if any, who join in that opinion. As a litigator, I’d be in a heap of trouble if I tried to pass off a losing opinion as an opinion of the Supreme Court–you always have to state that what you’re citing is a concurrence, dissent, or even a plurality unless it represents the majority opinion of the Court.

Not really. Sure, there’s nothing improper about citing them (so long as you acknowledge that they’re dissents/concurrences), but they don’t have any legal effect, so why bother? Indeed, if you’re trying to get a court to accept your position, citing a dissent in support of your position is counter-productive, since it just highlights that your position has alreadt been rejected. About the only time you would want to cite a dissent or concurrence is when you’re trying to get a court to overturn its previous ruling, e.g., “Justice Scalia was completely right when he said that the majority’s decision would result in an empidemic of legalized necrophilia.” So basically, in practice, you just don’t see that many dissenting opinions cited in briefs, at least not the ones by good litigators.

Misrepresentation by omission is still misrepresentation.

Concurring opinions are rejected by the Court? Why ever would they do that? In actual fact, even dissents aren’t rejected by the Court. Your chronology of events is wrong. Dissents and concurrences are written *after, or during, the authoring of the majority opinion. And the Supreme Court never votes on whether to accept, or reject, an opinion. Not a dissenting opinion, not a concurring opinion, not even a majority opinion. The opinions are written after the court has heard testimony, deliberated and voted. there’s no subsequent vote to accept or reject what happens after an opinion is written.

In this you are simply wrong. Go read the opinions. Whaddaya think, the justices are simply tossing the phrase 2nd amendment into their opinions for the sheer hell of it? If something’s mentioned, it’s to make a point.

And I suggest you look here: http://www.supremecourtus.gov/opinions/info_opinions.html regarding what the Supreme Court considers its published opinions. The simple fact is that opinions—majority, concurring and dissenting—are all published under the authority and guidance of the Supreme Court. As such, they are attributable to the Supreme Court. The Court itself goes so far as to say that all of these publications “contain the final, official opinions of the Supreme Court of the United States.” Here, go download one of these monster .pdfs and you’ll published dissenting and concurring opinions for nearly every case. What’s more, the footnotes to the opinions often make reference to dissenting opinions from previous decisions.

Once again, the Supreme Court has been anything but silent on the second amendment.

And there’s more. Check Rule #41 - Opinions of the Supreme Court in the attached pdf titled Rules of the Supreme Court. It says, in part:

And let’s see just what “slip form” means:

Now, make us all laugh again and tell us one more time that dissenting and concurring opinions cannot be attributed to the Supreme Court.

But a justification is not required. IIRC, none of the other amendments offer justifications. Obviously (gasp! - he said that word), the authors didn’t feel that the bill of rights required justifications. So no, that only works against your point of view.

You have presented a theory as to the meaning of the first clause. I happen to disagree with your theory.

Yes, I can see that really stuck in your craw. I have no idea why. I’d suggest you get over it.

That makes no sense. If it is part of a list of examples, then it is an example.

I’m sorry, I can’t find where I said that. Could you quote me please, or direct me to the numbered post where I said that? I’m fairly certain I never said that the Second Amendment was a model of clarity, so I don’t understand your attempt to imply that I have contradicted myself.

Well then that doesn’t speak well for your point of view. If his proposed text was modified to place the ‘militia’ part first and replace the semicolon with a comma, it would seem to indicate that they wanted to de-emphasise the individual-rights part of the equation. I think you just shot your argument in the foot.

Not at all. As I said, the 1st Congress’ actions on the proposed Bill of Rights text was to pare it down, make it less wordy. I don’t see how simply re-arranging the phrases and substituting a comma for a semi-colon substantively alters the meaning of the clause, “the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.” What you see in the second amendment is the result of Congress’ attempt to streamline the language; they weren’t necessarily changing the meaning.

Also, note that the date on Madison’s recommendation (June 8) is well after the Congress convened (March 4) and began discussion of the proposed Bill of Rights. It’s not that Madison’s recommendation was altered to the current wording of the second amendment, it’s that Madison was offering an alternative wording which he thought more closely expressed the intent of the authors and the sense of Congress.

Ah, of course, it wasn’t “obviously” it was “clearly.” My mistake.

You just got through saying the later wording was more confusing, now you’re just saying it’s “streamlined”. And how does reversing the order of the clauses “streamline” it?

Do you have any evidence to back up this assertion? Because you admitted yourself that the revised wording less clearly delineates the idea of gun ownership as being a seperate concept from that of a militia. Why would Madison want a wording that less clearly expressed what he ostensibly wanted to convey? I don’t know what your dates have to do with anything. Clearly, the original wording was discussed at some point, and changed to the final wording.

The more likely explanation, and one I have heard expressed by historians, is that the latter wording was a compromise, and intended to de-emphasize the individual-rights idea.

The reason I asked you about it was because you were incessantly hammering on me about my use of the word “obviously”, posting one snide comment after another, and I wanted to respond. I appreciate you admitting your mistake, but could you at least provide a quote of what it is that I actually did say, since you apparently looked it up? I can’t tell if your post is supposed to be sarcastic. If you believe I was making a picayune point about having used a different word than the one you claimed I did, I assure you that’s not what I was doing. I honestly couldn’t figure out what statement of mine you were harping on.

Evidence for which assertion?

That Madison offered an alternative wording to the second amendment on June 4, 1789? Yeah. It’s in that link above. And again here: http://www.federalist.com/histdocs/madamend.htm

The assertion that Congress began discussing the merits of attaching a Bill of Rights to the Constitution as their second matter of business? Yeah. Joyce Lee Malcom’s To Keep and Bear Arms: The Origins of an Anglo-American Right

Streamlined, yep. Less wordy. More concise. The original text was very much along the lines of what we find in Virginia’s Declaration of Rights - Section XIII written by George Mason and heavily influenced by Thomas Jefferson. It says:

Then, Madison’s proposed language was considered. Again, it says:

Ultimately, a compromise version, one significantly reduced in word count, was reached and put before the states for ratification. This is the text that appears in the second amendment today:

Lots of verbiage deleted along the way. That’s pretty much what the 1st Congress did with all the proposed articles to be included in the Bill of Rights. Chop, cut down, redact and streamline. Support for all of this is also contained in Malcolm’s book linked above.

To address your question of why Madison “want[ed] a wording that less clearly expressed what he ostensibly wanted to convey,” the answer is, he didn’t. He had his own proposed language. That’s linked here twice now. The reason we got that compromise version that’s in there now, is exactly that, it’s a compromise. Unfortunately, when that’s all that one looks at, it’s not entirely clear today that the authors were referring to a private right to arms. Ya gotta go back and look at everything that was considered and the rationale for all that stuff.

Also, and quite important to note, Madison didn’t think a Bill of Rights was necessary at all. He said of the Bill of Rights in a speech delivered before Congress (also on June 4, 1789) the Bill of Rights was “neither improper nor absolutely useless.” Much later, in 1821, Madison had this to say about his authorship of the Bill of Rights: “those safe, if not necessary, and those politic, if not obligatory, amendments.” Remember Madison was a Federalist and a Bill of Rights was initially proposed by the Anti-Federalist camp. Thus, what we have now is a compromise, and that compromise was over an issue that Madison wasn’t convinced was necessary to begin with. In that light it’s not unreasonable to assume that Madison had little interest in forcing his version of the test. His interest in the Bill of Rights was limited using it to persuade the last remaining Anti-Federalist holdouts that they’d have some guarantees and assurances that the proposed federal government wouldn’t have a free hand at usurping the rights the people and the states enjoyed under the Articles of Confederation.

blowero, I frankly can’t explain my previous irritation. So let me apologize for my behavior. But here’s where it started. It began with this statement by you

My response was that it wasn’t the obvious conclusion. It is a conclusion, and one that the courts seemed to be leaning towards, but it isn’t a major point. It seems strange to me that they would bother with the second part if the first part was complete as such–if they only wanted to allow armed militias outside of federal control, there is no need for the second part at all. If all they wanted was to permit individual ownership, there is little reason for the first part. In a vacuum, I’d suggest that they meant for no federal control of arms per se (probably guns, not bombs and cannons, but again, we’re in a vacuum), and no regulation of the obvious use of those guns: non-federal militias.

Outside of a vacuum, the conclusion becomes murkier. You argue,

This is a very tough thing to read into it for me, not just because of the context in which the document was written. As we both agree to later, states must act within the federal constitution–just because the federal government has stated it can’t descriminate doesn’t mean that states reserve that right; similarly, just because the federal government cannot impede free speech doesn’t mean the states reserve that right, either. The collective interpretation seems quite narrow by comparison. If that is what they meant–well, these are the things for debate, but it is not a huge point.

The question, to me, is how we can reconcile the first part with the second part, not which has more importance.

Let’s look at the first amendment as an example of this narrow interpretation.

Are books free speech? Movies? Video games? Because none of these are mentioned. This is why I bring up the “non-exclusive” issue. This is also why I question your leaning on the states’ reserved right to regulate guns; would you agree that the states’ reserve the right to ban speech?