Yes he has a large number of strong axiomotic assumptions asserted from his political philosophy that are untied from the modern economic analysis - and most seem completely unexamined and unexaminable by him.
Only because you depart from a peculiar highly ideological point of view.
I have only observed the standard way in the proper economics the subject would be analyzed.
You make assertions based on very strong, and ‘particular’ assumptions from philosophical axioms that are not empirical but from your philosophy.
This is not how the modern economic analysis works.