Please bear with this potential train-wreck of an explanation.
A while ago, I heard a discussion (probably on a public radio station of some sort) about Shakespeare plays and how they usually involve actors speaking in modern British (London) accents, even when the actors are American. A linguistics-type person commented that if we wanted to be accurate, the American accent is closer to what the English used to sound like back in Shakespeare’s day than the way English is spoken nowadays in Great Britain. He, the linguistics person, said that modern Brit-English has gone though some other language influences, and he mentioned German being the main one.
Now, I can see how that’s possible, as American-English has probably had less exterior influence due to less contact with other similar languages so maybe it’s changed less over the years (lingusitics evolution?). So I posed this question to a couple of friends in Europe to see if they’d heard of this. A friend in London said that there was likely some truth to this, but a friend in Munich looked at me like I’d just landed. Does anyone know the validity or absurdity of this theory? Hvae you even heard of it at all?