The Cleveland Indians just scored 7 runs in the 11th inning to go ahead of Boston 13-6.
What is the largest margin of victory in an extra inning MLB game? Extra points if you can cite the post-season record as well.
The Cleveland Indians just scored 7 runs in the 11th inning to go ahead of Boston 13-6.
What is the largest margin of victory in an extra inning MLB game? Extra points if you can cite the post-season record as well.
On July 3, 1983, the Texas Rangers scored 12 runs in the 15th inning against the A’s and won 16-4.
Dunno about the playoffs, though.
Thanks. 6 minutes at 11:00 PM is pretty good. Maybe not the record, but very good.
1:40 AM over here…
Kudos for a really interesting question. I had just checked the boxscore and wondered the same thing!
I may be mistaken, but Fox showed a graphic that said 7 runs in an extra innings playoff game was a record. I was not listening to the Fox announcers, though (I was going out of my gourd at Jacobs Field) so I may not have read that right.
Have a cite here, from this story on mlb.com:
“The seven runs for Cleveland were the most by a team in one extra inning in postseason history.”
So, considering the home team could never come back and win by more than one, I guess that means the Tribe does indeed have the record for the largest extra-inning playoff margin in history.
The previous postseason record for winning margin in extra innnings is 4.
The most the home team can win an extra inning game by is 4.
Since the OP has been answered, I’d like to piggyback a related question I’ve been wondering about for a long time.
What’s the highest score an MLB game has been tied at at the end of nine innings? Also at the end of any inning later than nine?
Why can’t the home team win by more than one run?
In extra innings, the game is over when the home team scores the winning run(s). The home team bats in the bottom of the inning so the visiting team has already had it’s turn to win it in that inning.
So if the home team is down by one run, and there are two men on, and the batter hits a home run, how is that scored? Does he get credit for a single, with no run scored?
He gets credited with a home run, three RBIs, and his team wins by two.
The only way to win by more than one in the bottom of the ninth or later is by home run.
So it is possible, then.
Don’t you mean 3? Why would the batter’s run not count? I’m pretty sure BobT got it right when he said 4: that would be a grand slam.
In my example there were two men on. He was responding to me.
Yes, I know. Two base-runners plus one batter hitting a home run is 3.
Wait, I’m sorry, I was assuming the score was tied when the home run got hit. It would be a 2-run margin if the home team were down by one when it happened. Sorry, I’m all doped up on cough syrup right now.
I’m pretty sure the answer to your first question is 22-22, in a game between the Phillies and the Cubs at Wrigley on 5/17/1979. Naturally, the Cubs lost 23-22 in the 10th.
Though it did used to be that the batter got credit for as many bases as was needed to win the game, and no more.
Babe Ruth actually got shorted some dingers this way. In his day, a walk off homerun was only scored as whatever the winning RBI would have been. If the score was tied with the bases juiced and the hitter jacked one out, he’d only get credit for a base hit and one RBI. Ruth actually hit a few more than 714. I saw the number once, but I don’t remember what it was. It wasn’t a huge number but he did win a handful of games with walk off dongs that didn’t get scored as dongs.