Are materialism and logic incompatible?

Even if I’m the only person to notice that you are assuming your conclusion, you are still assuming your conclusion.

I may be the first authority to notice, but I’m not the only one:

erislover and Scylla have pointed out basically the same objection.

Perhaps if the “proof” had been posted on the SDMB sooner, the TM would have pointed out the flaws earlier. If you have a proof of God’s existence that does not require the assumption that God must exist, I, too would love to see it.

I have a big problem with your definition of God. Your God is simply necessary existence with no other properties. You have not demonstrated that G has any Will, or Goodness, or Love. In fact you have not demonstrated that G has any properties that one would normally associate with God – With the possible exception of existence, and in order to say that G and God share the property of existing, you had to assume that G necessarily exists and you must assume that God exists.

You have not proven that God exists; you have shown that something that must exist does exist — and I’ll grant you that.


Virtually yours,

DrMatrix - The emperor has no clothes!

It is trivial to push something that should otherwise be demonstrated into the realm of the axiom and ask for simple rejection, then get huffy when we reject it.

So if you are asking me to accept or reject (I) or (II) I reject (II). I do feel that the typical understanding of “God” would have G->G as a definitional attribute.

<>G is rejected as an axiom. It needs to be demonstrated if it can be. If it can’t be then I don’t feel too bad about not accepting it and I don’t feel too bad about you accepting it.

A strong atheist would say that ~<>G. I’m not. I’m just saying that <>G needs to be a conlcusion before I would be compelled to accept that proof, and saying “The greatest possible being is surely possible!” isnt’ going to cut it, I’m afraid. For me.

Hmm. Looks like Dr Matrix beat me to the punch there.

DrMatrix

The conclusion is “G”. Where in the argument before the conclusion is that statement made, DrMatrix? Show me, please.

There was quite an active thread, what, seven pages long or so, just recently. Where were you?

Show me where in the argument the assumption is made that God exists. You do understand, don’t you, that G->G does not mean that God exists, right?

More precisely perhaps, you have not read my demonstrations. Tell me what you discern as the essential difference between these two terms: “greatest possible being” and “supreme being”.

And as I already explained in some detail, will, goodness, and love are known to exist among beings; therefore, the greatest possible being is capable of these attributes to the greatest possible extent.

Did you read the first page, sir?

Sure, it’s accept/ reject with the axioms, Lib. But that doesn’t have to be a quick or reflexive process. Seeing a proof or result makes me look really hard at what is being assumed. Often I find that something subtle I didn’t understand the importance of is hiding in there. Often the utility of a proof is that it stimulates the unpacking of the axioms.

[hijack]erislover, I’ve disagreed with you on many things on this board, and expect to continue to do so. But, damn, man, you’re a scholar.[/hijack]

I readily admit that I don’t understand every nuance of this argument, but that’s never stopped me from speaking up before. :wink:

To Libertarian:
The way I see it, you’re using a system that assumes something called “necessary existence”. You then go on to prove with that system that there is something called “necessary existence”.

You said yourself that:

In other words, the greatest possible existence (what has been labeled “God”) is, in modal logic, necessary existence. So if God is defined as the greatest possible existence, in a modal logic framework that is synonymous with “necessary existence”. But a modal logic framework assumes necessary existence.

It’s like deriving “A=A” using traditional logic. Nothing has really been proved at all; you’re just restating one of the axioms of the system you’re using.

I suppose it’s possible to have some “religious” feeling (I use the scare quotes because I know you’re feelings on religion; yet, I don’t know a better word) for an abstract logical concept. I don’t think most people would feel that way though. I could accept “A=A” as my personal savior, but most people would just think me batty. :slight_smile: Accepting the concept of necessary existence as something mystical seems about the same to me.

P.S. I think eris’ chessboard analogy is a pretty good one.

Hawthorne

Who said it did? I leave you the same unanswered question that I left Eris: why is it unreasonable to accept that “G -> <>G”.


Eris

My friend, I don’t think characterizing my arguments as “huffy” advances your own. From where I sit, I am fending off quite a bit of “huffiness”.

It was you who insisted that we not speak of “possible” in English, but in symbology. I then asked you what is unreasonable about G -> <>G.

If you believe that the greatest possible being might not be possible, then I would never expect to convince you of anything whatsoever.

BlackKnight

The axiom is G->G. The conclusion is G.

Sorry, you’re wrong.

That’s a premise. I was referring to an axiom of modal logic. Please reread my post.

Libertarian writes:
“Preguntas
No, I don’t intend to get into definding Becker’s Postulate here. I already did that in the other thread…”

Looking at the other thread, I found some interesting discussion of Becker’s postulate. But it did not seem to address my particular objection. I have subsequently replied to that thread, in particular addressing a statement by Wade A. Tisthammer. I think my view is more clearly expressed there than I did here. I am not sure what the custom is when two threads collide like this. So, I’ll give the link. I hope to see a response to my post, although I am 25 days after the previous last post in the thread. It certainly is relevant to the discussion here in my opinion. Here is the link to the page my response is on:
http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?s=&postid=2321222#post2321222

"My friend, I don’t think characterizing my arguments as “huffy” advances your own. From where I sit, I am fending off quite a bit of “huffiness”. "- Libertarian

I’m sure it might feel that way but you are actually fending off confusion. No one really understands why you think this proof is meaningful. I am baffled by your ability to read metaphysical qualities into your conclusion.

If I changed a few words around could I prove “the least possible existence exists”? Would I be proving the existence of the Devil?

Blackknight

I see what you mean, and I apologize. It’s no excuse, but you can imagine trying to address so many thoughtful posts as fairly and thoroughly as possible. (Two have appeared since I began composing this one to you. ;))

Necessary existence has been proved. (You can find the formal proof in the Ontology thread). Basically, it is a derivation of ~<>~ “not possible not”. So G means the same as ~<>~.

In any case, p, where p is any arbitrary entity is a commonplace modal statement. See the definition above somewhere of modality.

As to Eris’s chessboard analogy, it is his bird that is God. It is his bird that can see all the positions that it is possible to see.

CarnalK

Let me try and explain it once more.

Let’s start from the end of the proof, because the proof is sound. (It is at least valid, DrMatrix’s opinion notwithstanding.)

At the end of the proof, we have G. That statement means that God, as defined, exists. God is defined as G. That means that He is “the greatest possible existence” (i.e., necessary existence, or supreme being).

One implication of the conclusion (were we to continue drawing inferences in the argument) is that God exists in this world since this world is a possible world.

Certain things are known to exist in this world. The modality of existence implies that the capability for those things exist in God since He exists in all possible worlds (that’s what necessary existence means). Therefore, where there is love, He is capable of the maximum possible love. Where there is hate, He is capable of the maximum possible hate. Whatever attributes that you can find here, He is capable of their maximums in all possible worlds.

As to whether you can prove the least possible existence, that would be nonexistence (~p). There are some modal axioms that deal with nonexistence, but none that apply here. Note that Bouer’s Postulate is used here, and is one of the many postulates that deals with necessary existence and possible existence. If DrMatrix will give his permission, I will reprint the entire proof here, but for now, you’ll have to look for it in the thread about What is Containing the Universe. (I posted the proof there, and there are rules against cross-posting.) Meanwhile, there is a link for your convenience. Search on my name. I think it’s my fourth or fifth post on that page.

“Therefore, where there is love, He is capable of the maximum possible love. Where there is hate, He is capable of the maximum possible hate. Whatever attributes that you can find here, He is capable of their maximums in all possible worlds.”

But does it not bother you that many attributes are contradictory? Your proof is perhaps better thought of a series of proofs ie G1 proves maximum love,G2 proves maximum hate,G3 proves maximum ignorance,G4 proves maximum knowledge. Then a seperate proof must be made to show that all these attribute are stored in the same entity.

Lastly how do we know that the “greatest possible” of any attribute is all that great? There could exist in the world strict “maximum compassion” that we’ve seen exhibited in our own species. Or perhaps being an inanimate object is “maximum compassion” as you have no selfish thoughts, merely exist.

This whole concept/thread is based on the idea that we can put scalar values on extremely subjective concepts.(I believe this point has been raised earlier but I think it bears repeating)

And I can’t help but agree with DrMatrix on his fist reply to your proof. Your definition of God is that he must(necessarily) exist.

“**Definition: God = G {God is necessary existence} **”

Couldn’t we have saved time by stopping right there? If we accept that definition then we’ve already accepted God’s existence.

(I hope that isn’t overly cross-posting, i mean this thread was started to discuss the proof separatly from the other discussion)

I really wish you hadn’t skipped over my post, Lib. Especially since it was one of the first five or so replies, and I’d really like to see an answer to some of the more basic challenges to your argument. Basically, I don’t think anyone is simply “rejecting a strong argument” so much as pointing out the argument isn’t that strong at all. In fact, it has such wide-spread aplication to all sorts of unrelated and ill-defined topics that it is quite flimsy.

Anything that isn’t proven to be impossible or not exist, has some chance to exist. In english, it’s possible that it exists. Possible also can be used to say that something can be done. I don’t know much about modal logic, but just from reading this thread, I can tell that “possible” in modal logic means that something is true in at least one case. This is not the same as the english “possible”. “True in at least one case” != “could be true”. Your argument uses the english possible and modal possible interchangably, which simply doesn’t work. If you’re going to use the modal-logic “possible” for god’s existance, IE, that god exists in one world, you will need to demonstrate that a good does indeed exist in one world. Untill then, you’ve got a possible possible (English and modal, respectively) value, but not a definate one.

You’re also assuming definitions here. You presume to define got as the “greatest possible existance”, but there is neither any evidence for this, nor any definition of what the greatest possible existance is. In fact, you don’t even have any reasoning that there can be a “greatest possible existance”, instead of either existance or non-existance. As someone else pointed out, it sure seems to be an either-or thing, not a greater-or-less-than thing. But assuming for a moment that it is possible, you still need to show what the greatest possible existance is. It could be that whatever the greatest possible existance is, is so great that the entire universe is contained inside a single atom of a single cell of his body. Or he could simply be a human that’s just a hair ‘better’ than all the rest. Maybe he can jump a few inches further than any other human, or has a single-point higher IQ than anyone else. Which leads into the final point, you would have to show that god is the greatest possible existance, instead of something else. Without simply presuming he must exist, and is therefor the greatest possible existance. You (And most christians) would probably define god as being such, but that’s presuming his existance, which doesn’t logically work. It would be like me saying a great dragon is the greatest possible existance, and using that as proof that a great dragon must exist. The popularity of your opinion has no bearing on logic, after all, and the two have the same amount of logic (Very, very superficial and flawed logic, that is).

Even if you define god as being the greatest possible existance, that does not make god necessary exitance. I’m assuming you’re using the modal-logic possible here, because otherwise “greatest possible existance” has no solid meaning (It instead would mean that there’s a -chance- that god exists, which would also mean there’s a chance he doesn’t, which is even more fatal to your possition). But if we assume that god is the greatest (modal)possible existance, that would mean he exists in one world. You then have to define what a world is. At the very least, it would have to be the universe (Something can either exist or not exist in this universe, not multiple examples of each). So how many worlds are there? This is another reason I don’t think modal logic works properly here. We don’t have any other defined worlds, so untill we can see other worlds (Universes), we are effectively working in a one-world system. Modal-logic possible therefor would be impossible; Something either exists or not, and if something does exist in this one and only “world” in our logic system, then it is either true or false. While this would seem quite appealing at first for your argument, since it seems to connect the earlier half of your argument to being completely true, it also destroys the earlier half of your argument at the same time. There can only be true or false in this single-world system, not possible. Since modal-logic possible means to be true in one world but not all (Since that would be simply “true”… Or whatever the term was you used… Necessary?), then it would be impossible to have a ‘possible’ condition. The first half of your argument would have to show god to be a true value, which isn’t accomplished untill after assuming it to be true. Again, I can do the same thing with a ‘great dragon’ or just about anything else I want, and the logic would hold up the same.

And finally, if you do manage to work up to the point of showing that god does exist in one world/universe, that doesn’t mean he exists in our world/universe, or that he doesn’t exist in a fictional world/universe that only exists in this “equation” of yours. And if he doesn’t exist in our universe… What was the point?

To put it basically, you’ve got a LOT of wide-ranging variables and definitions that you need to pin down first (And, in fact, some of which you need to prove are true to begin with, such as if there even can be a “greatest possible existance” instead of just “existance”). With your current argument, you presume to define most of these without any evidence to support appart from circular logic that relies on them necessarily being at a certain value. At the very least, you would have to supply firm evidence for defining “greatest possible existance” (After showing it can exist at all), and “god” (Which I imagine will be pretty tricky, seeing as you’re trying to prove he exists at all, and if you could show evidence for a definition of god, this whole modal-logic argument is pointless anyway). Your argument is weak because just about anything can be put in the place of “god” in your example, and still follow through just as “logically.” And as much as I would love something that would prove (To use the example one last time) that some great dragon exists and is the most powerfull being in the universe, the fact that it can be applied to individual rocks, every single other god, or even an antrhopomorphic mosquito, it results in so many “true” outputs that it is meaningless.

And now my head hurts. I hope it was worth it, at least…

CarnalK

No, as I explained earlier (page 2 maybe?), being capable of either of two mutually exclusive attributes is not in itself contradictory. For example, although God is fully capable of exercising the greatest possible will, nothing precludes Him from electing NOT to exercise it and allow you a will of your own. After all, if He has the greatest possible power, He may make whatever moral choices He pleases. As it so happens (and this is far outside the scope of this proof), I believe that He has chosen to love.

Indeed I do believe that it has been exhibited in our own species. Your question reminds me of a story that Jesus told.

We are dealing with modalities only. Talk about “scalar values” is random. I have never seen “scalar values” mentioned in modal logic.

If you’d like to review a good introduction to modal logic, there’s a good one hosted by Stanford University.


I see that there’s much more on preview.

(Phoenix, I apologize, and I’ll address you next before I address anyone else, but just let me finish addressing CarnalK who has posted again. If I can’t finish today, I’ll finish in the morning. It looks like your post is long. I regret missing your earlier post. I am debating ten to one here, so please forgive me and be patient. ;))

CarnalK (continuing)

:eek: No! We certainly can’t stop right there.

The claim of God having necessary existence holds only if He in fact exists! Definitions don’t “prove” things. Otherwise, you could prove that pigs fly by defining “fly” to mean “wallow in mud”.

First, nothing is unreasonable about G-><>G. But then we need to derive G.

Second, “The greatest possible being might not be possible.” You’re doing it again. I can accept that we define God as the greatest possible being (English). I can accept that God must therefore be possible (English). I do not accept that accepting possibility demands existence of any kind.

Possible means not forbidden.

So, let’s switch over to modal logic.

Define God as the greatest possible being. BZZT! Nope. You’ve assumed what you’re trying to prove now, because possibility in modal logic demands existence. Which, you might note, is what we want to prove.

Possible means exists.


Not forbidden != exists

“The greatest possible being can’t possibly exist?!?! That’s absurd!!” Not really. You’ve just got your possibles mixed up.

You then say to CarnalK

Yes, which you’ve assumed. See your second axiom.

Phoenix

I’ll address your post in full, but I prefer the morning time when I am freshest and can give it the attention it deserves. Plus, the board is presently excruciatingly slow. Meanwhile, I’d like to address a couple of points from your introduction.

Again, I apologize. I have no excuse for missing your post. Perhaps I thought I had covered it in my consolidations. Obviously, I failed.

There is apparently a misunderstanding among us. I’m speaking about the merits of the argument using the strict criteria that is ordinarily used in the field of logic itself. It isn’t a matter of whether an argument is “strong”, but of whether it is first “valid”, and then “sound”. An argument is valid if its inferences follow logically from one another. An argument is sound if it is valid and its axioms are true.

The greatest critics (feel free to check this yourself), like Oppenheimer, Zalta, and others have conceded that even the very earliest forms of the argument (including Anselm’s original Proslogium ii version, nearly a thousand years old!) are valid. Citing these men is no fallacy in this instance because they are recognized experts (giants, in fact) in their fields. Just as DrMatrix would not accept it if I made an armchair comment about how ridiculous a quantum mechanical theory might be, so I must reject armchair comments about this argument that are born of, not really spite in all cases, but certainly ignorance.

It isn’t fair to assail Creationists, for example, on the one hand by pointing out their weak comprehension of evolution and natural selection while on the other hand coming at this argument much the same way! I think people ought at least to make a meager attempt at research before coming at me with guns blazing.

I mean criminey, man! :smiley: How on earth am I supposed to react when someone says, “your premise assumes your conclusion” when the premise is G → G and the conclusion is G? Formal study is not required to see that they are not the same. One is “if God exists, then He exists necessarily” and the other is “God exists”. Or when someone mentions a “second axiom” when there is only one. […sigh…] I honestly don’t know how to respond to such protests other than to repeat the rules of elementary first order logic. I feel obligated to do so if for no other reason than to place on record that the rule was explained.

You can imagine, if you are a specialist in some discipline (I have no degree, but I have taught logic to computer programmers professionally) and you walk into a room where people are making broad sweeping claims about particulars that you know to be wrong, what do you do? What I tried to do was spell out early on what these things mean in plain language. But when you try that and you are summarily ignored, I hope you can understand that it becomes increasingly easy to get testier and testier over time with the repeated tedium of explaining things not once, not twice, but again and again.

I have asked people to show where the conclusion is stated in the premise. I have asked people to show where there is an inference that does not follow from another. I have asked people to show how something that is the greatest possible is not, well, possible.

But no one shows me any of those things — things that would show problems with the argument. Instead, they speak about utter irrelevancies like “scalar values”. They call me “huffy”. Some even just cry out with a vague accusation of “hocus pocus”.

Well, I can stand the heat. And I’m staying in the kitchen. I believe that I have demonstrated repeatedly on these boards that when I am confronted by a compelling argument, I will concede. (In fact, I did that today with respect to parallel lines.) But damned if I won’t stand my ground when a formal logic proof is assailed, not by proper criticism, but by analogies, vagueness, and sometimes madness.

I’ll address the rest of your post probably in the morning, and I promise that you will be answered before anyone else. It might be best if I am fresh enough to give your post the thoughtfulness it deserves.

Thank you for your kind indulgence. And once again, I apologize for having ignored your concerns.

Oh, and hawthorne? You’re making me blush over here! :slight_smile: