[QUOTE=OtakuLoki]
And, yeah, learning any foreign language makes you realize just how FUBAR English really is. What other language uses the exact same word choice and constructions for the perfect and imperfect tenses? I never understood the subjunctive until I got it in another language.
[/QUOTE]
The same word choice and constructions? Gosh, it’s almost as though English doesn’t make that distinction! Besides, “perfect” and “imperfect” are aspects, not tenses. Tense refers to past, present, and future, while (depending on the language) any of those could be used with either the perfect or imperfect aspect. Though I think they are often conflated in Latin pedagogy.
The problem with studying Latin to learn English grammar is all you’ll learn from it is Latin grammar. If English grammar were taught properly, the ridiculousness of learning one language in order to understand another language’s grammar would be apparent. At any rate, while you’ll learn some of the basics of English grammar (because you’ll learn some basic grammar) studying Latin, you’d be better off taking a decent course in English grammar. Because what you’d learn studying Latin is only partially relevant to English and contains large gaps in the area of grammatical features that Latin doesn’t possess.
Besides, misapplying Latin grammar to English is why people make silly little claims about “splitting infinitives” (scare quotes used because the phrase itself is ridiculous - no infinitive is being split in English) and preposition stranding.
It is? I’ve never seen numbers, but how common is Latin speakership worldwide? I would imagine that, say, French or German would be more common. In terms of sheer number of speakers, Mandarin would win out, though that’s useful only in limited areas of the world. Spanish or Arabic are primary languages in vast areas of the world and numerous different countries (and in the case of Arabic, it’s a common second language in many areas as well). It seems to me that there are very few places where speaking Latin would be any help at all, while any of the above languages would stand a decent chance of being useful at least some of the time.
I don’t know when per se (and probably no one does), but it happened when late Latin was in the process of evolving into the modern Romance languages; C and G were always “hard” in Latin (that is, they were stop consonants) but at some point they changed their pronunciation when followed by I or E (or in the case of French, A, which is why you have château while in Spanish it’s castillo.) This is because I and E are front vowels, and under their influence the preceding consonants /k/ and /g/ moved forward. The final result differs in different Romance languages - “C” followed by a front vowel became /s/ in French or Portuguese or Latin American Spanish, “th” (like English thing) in Peninsular Spanish, and “ch” (like English chin) in Italian or Romanian.
If you’re asking why we mispronounce Classical Latin words, it’s because most people don’t speak Classical Latin and don’t know the proper pronunciations, so pronunciations influenced by local languages (or, in the case of Church Latin, by the pronunciation of modern Italian) became common in areas where Latin is spoken.