From an article quoted in another thread:
OK, deposits are liabilities on the bank’s balance sheet. I don’t know what the assets are, probably some combination of buildings, investments, and receivables on loans that are still good (they plan to write off about $31 billion of subprime loans). So the net is roughly $200 billion.
If FDIC didn’t have to pay any claims, and JPMC is getting a bottom line of $200 billion, why did they pay only 1% of that amount? This is like the bellhop and the missing dollar. (The stockholders lost everything, but they are not part of this equation. I don’t know what happens to the $1.9 extra large that the FDIC gets.)
I hope I am asking a simple accounting question but I suspect this gets complicated.